Alberta Regulation 1/2026

Access to Information Act

DESIGNATION OF PUBLIC BODIES

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 12, 2026

For information only: Made by the Minister of Service Alberta and Red Tape

Reduction (M.O. 39/2025) on December 19, 2025 pursuant to

section 97(2) and (3) of

the Access to Information Act.

1 The Designation of Public Bodies Regulation

(AR 144/2025) is amended by this Regulation.

2 The

Schedule is amended

(

a) by striking out the following:

Alberta Conservation Association

Alberta Recycling Management Authority

Beverage Container Management Board

Climate Change and Emissions Management Corporation

(

b) by adding "Compassionate Intervention Commission"

before "Mental Health Patient Advocate";

(

c) by adding "Alberta iGaming Corporation" before

"Alberta Motor Vehicle Industry Council".

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 2/2026

Gaming, Liquor and Cannabis Act

GAMING, LIQUOR AND CANNABIS

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 3/2026) on

January 13, 2026 pursuant to

section 129 of the Gaming, Liquor and Cannabis Act.

1 The Gaming, Liquor and Cannabis Regulation

(AR 143/96) is amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(1) is amended by adding the following after

clause (l.1):

(l.2) "self-exclusion program" means a self-exclusion program

administered by the Commission;

Section 13.2(1) is amended by adding the following after

clause (g):

(

h) iGaming supplier registrations.

Section 16 is amended by adding "34.62, 34.63, 34.7(2),"

after "34.2(2),".

5 The heading "Licences" preceding

section 19 is repealed

and the following is substituted:

Division 1

Licences

6 The heading "Registration" preceding

section 24 is

repealed and the following is substituted:

Division 2

Registration

7 The heading "General" preceding

section 29 is repealed

and the following is substituted:

Division 3

General

Section 34.1(1) is amended

(

a) by adding "the licensee, employee or agent, as the case

may be, knows or has been advised by the Commission that"

after "facility if";

(

b) in clauses (a), (

b) and (

c) by striking out "the licensee,

employee or agent, as the case may be, knows or has been

advised by the Commission that".

Section 34.2 is amended

(

a) by repealing subsection (3) and substituting the

following:

(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply with respect to a person

who is enrolled in a self-exclusion program if

(

a) the person is enrolled in a self-exclusion program only

for the purpose of self-excluding from iGaming activity,

(

b) the person enters into and remains in the licensed

facility or licensed premises as a requirement of paid

employment.

(

b) by repealing subsection (4).

Section 34.3(1) is amended

(

a) in clause (

a) by striking out "referred to in

section 34.2"

and substituting "for the purpose of self-excluding from

gaming activity at a licensed facility or licensed premises";

(

b) by striking out "or" at the end of clause (d), adding

"or" at the end of clause (

e) and adding the

following after clause (e):

(

f) is a person referred to in

section 34.65(1)(f).

11 The following is added after

section 34.5:

Division 4

iGaming

Definitions

34.6 In this Division,

(a) "iGaming operator" means an iGaming supplier who

operates an iGaming site;

(b) "iGaming worker" means an individual paid to assist an

iGaming supplier in the conduct or management of an

iGaming activity or operation of an iGaming site;

(c) "player" means an individual who has an account with an

iGaming site operated by an iGaming operator.

Registration exemption

34.61 The following are exempt from the requirement in

section

49.1(1)(

a) of the Act to be registered under

section 49.2 of the Act:

(

a) an iGaming worker;

(

b) a person who provides goods or services to an iGaming site,

or a related business, that the Commission determines is not

providing goods or services directly related to an iGaming

activity or the operation of an iGaming site;

(

c) a holder of a gaming licence or a person who is authorized by

the Commission to sell tickets for a lottery scheme.

Offence to enter iGaming site

34.62 No person shall enter or remain on an iGaming site if the

person has been convicted of

(

a) an offence under

section 209 of the Criminal Code (Canada),

(

b) an offence under

section 462.31 of the Criminal Code

(Canada), or

(

c) a terrorist activity as defined in the Criminal Code (Canada).

Convicted and legally excluded

persons not permitted

34.63(1) No iGaming operator or employee or agent of an iGaming

operator may permit a person to enter or remain on an iGaming site if

the operator, employee or agent, as the case may be, knows or has been

advised by the Commission that

(

a) the person has been convicted of an offence under

section 209 or 462.31 of the Criminal Code (Canada),

(

b) the person has been convicted of a terrorist activity as

defined in the Criminal Code (Canada), or

(

c) the person

(

i) has been convicted of an offence under a foreign Act or

regulation that, in the board's opinion, is substantially

similar to an offence under

section 209 or 462.31 of the

Criminal Code (Canada),

(ii) has been convicted of an offence under a foreign Act or

regulation that, in the board's opinion, is substantially

similar to a terrorist activity as defined in the Criminal

Code (Canada), or

(iii) is not, under the laws of a jurisdiction other than

Alberta, permitted to enter or remain on an iGaming

site.

(2) The board may issue a notice to an iGaming operator stating that a

person referred to in subsection (1)(a), (

b) or (

c) may be permitted to

enter an iGaming site and, on the notice being issued, subsection (1)

and

section 34.62 do not apply in respect of that person unless the

board revokes the notice.

Self-exclusion programs

34.64(1) No iGaming operator or employee or agent of an iGaming

operator may permit a person who is enrolled in a self-exclusion

program to enter or remain on an iGaming site.

(2) No person who is enrolled in a self-exclusion program shall enter

or remain on an iGaming site.

(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply with respect to a person who

is enrolled in a self-exclusion program if

(

a) the person is enrolled in a self-exclusion program only for the

purpose of self-excluding from gaming activity at a licensed

facility or licensed premises, or

(

b) the person enters and remains on the iGaming site as a

requirement of paid employment.

Right to refuse entry

34.65(1) For the purposes of this section, "inadmissible" means a

person who

(

a) is enrolled in a self-exclusion program for the purpose of

self-excluding from iGaming activity,

(

b) is charged with, convicted of or believed on reasonable

grounds to be involved in an offence under

section 209 of the

Criminal Code (Canada),

(

c) is charged with, convicted of or believed on reasonable

grounds to be involved in an offence under

section 462.31 of

the Criminal Code (Canada),

(

d) is charged with, convicted of or believed on reasonable

grounds to be involved in a terrorist activity as defined in the

Criminal Code (Canada),

(

e) is a person referred to in

section 34.63(1)(c),

(

f) has engaged in activity, observed by an iGaming operator, an

employee or agent of an iGaming operator, the Commission

or the iGaming corporation, which the iGaming operator,

employee, agent, Commission or iGaming corporation

considers on reasonable grounds to be a detriment to the

integrity of or lawful conduct of iGaming activities on an

iGaming site, or

(

g) is a person referred to in

section 34.3(1)(e).

(2) If a person is inadmissible,

(

a) an iGaming operator or an employee or agent of an iGaming

operator is required to terminate the person's access to its

iGaming site immediately, or the Commission may require

that the person's access to the iGaming site be terminated

immediately, and

(

b) the Commission may, by written notice delivered to the

person, forbid the person to enter an iGaming site at any time

during a period specified in the notice.

(3) If, on the coming into force of this section, a person is subject to a

written notice delivered by the Commission under

section 34.3(2)(b),

the Commission is considered to have delivered notice under

subsection (2)(

b) forbidding the person to enter an iGaming site for the

period specified in the notice.

Prize disentitlement

34.66(1) A person is not entitled to any prize or winnings as a result

of the person's participation in an iGaming activity if

(

a) that person is prohibited under

section 34.62, 34.63(1) or

34.64(2) from entering or remaining on an iGaming site

where the iGaming activity occurred, or

(

b) the Commission delivered a notice under

section 34.65(2)(b),

or is considered to have delivered a notice under

section

34.65(3), forbidding the person from entering an iGaming

site where and for the period during which the iGaming

activity occurred.

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person referred to in

section

34.63(1)(a), (

b) or (

c) if a notice referred to in

section 34.63(2) has

been issued in respect of the person and has not been revoked.

Advertising iGaming

34.7(1) For the purposes of

section 49.1 of the Act, "advertising"

includes marketing and promotions.

(2) For the purpose of

section 49.1(4) of the Act, a person may

advertise in relation to an iGaming site only in accordance with the

following requirements:

(

a) advertising must not be intentionally communicated to a

self-excluded individual or an individual who may be or is at

a high risk of experiencing harm from engaging in iGaming

activities;

(

b) advertising must not be directed at a minor;

(

c) advertising must not include an individual who is, or appears

to be, a minor;

(

d) advertising must be truthful and must not mislead players or

misrepresent products;

(

e) advertising must comply with the requirements set out in

Schedule 1.1.

(3) The Commission may direct an iGaming supplier to amend or

remove any advertising in the interest of ensuring integrity and social

responsibility in advertising in relation to iGaming activity.

Social responsibility requirements

34.8 An iGaming operator shall

(

a) implement policies and procedures to identify, prevent and

reduce the risks of harm to players resulting from iGaming

activity on its iGaming site,

(

b) establish a system that provides players with access to

information that enables players to make informed decisions

about their iGaming activity,

(

c) monitor player risk profiles and behaviours to identify

players who may be at risk of or experiencing harm resulting

from iGaming activity on its iGaming site,

(

d) ensure that assistance for players who may be at risk of or

experiencing harm from iGaming activity on its iGaming site

is readily available and provided,

(

e) intervene if the iGaming operator identifies a player who

may be at risk of or experiencing harm from iGaming activity

on its iGaming site,

(

f) provide players on account creation and at all times after

account creation a clear and accessible way to set monetary

and time limits on iGaming activities on its iGaming site,

(

g) provide players with reminders about the ability to set the

limits described in clause (f),

(

h) require players to affirm fitness to play prior to participating in

iGaming activities on its iGaming site, and

(

i) prominently display and provide clear access to a

self-exclusion program on its iGaming site.

Player accounts

34.9 An iGaming operator shall

(

a) accurately and completely record all player account

transactions,

(

b) make player account information, including account

transactions, readily available to a player, and

(

c) provide a player with reminders to review the player's

financial activity related to iGaming.

12 The following is added before

Schedule 2:

Schedule 1.1

Additional Requirements

Definitions

1 The

definitions in sections 34.6 and 34.7(1) apply to this Schedule.

Inducements, bonuses, credits

2(1) Advertising must not communicate gambling inducements,

bonuses or credits, except

(

a) on an iGaming operator's iGaming site, and

(

b) through advertising directed to an individual player after

receiving that player's express consent to receive advertising.

(2) Advertising that communicates gambling inducements, bonuses

and credits in accordance with subsection (1) must

(

a) disclose all material conditions and limitations of the

inducement, bonus or credit offer at its first presentation to a

player, with a description of all other conditions and

limitations accessible through no more than a single

redirection to a different document, website or page of a

website,

(

b) not describe the inducement, bonus or credit offer as free

unless it is free,

(

c) disclose in the inducement, bonus or credit offer that the

player must risk their own money or the conditions attached

to their money, if that is the case, and

(

d) not describe the inducement, bonus or credit as risk-free if

the player needs to incur any loss or risk their own money to

use or withdraw winnings from the risk-free bet.

(3) If advertising that communicates gambling inducements, bonuses

and credits is available through an iGaming site, each player must be

provided with

(

a) an opt-in process through which the player may consent to

receive advertising of inducements, bonuses and credits, and

(

b) an easily accessible method to withdraw their consent at any

time.

Minors, high-risk individuals

3(1) Advertising must not

(

a) be based on themes, or use language, intended to appeal to

minors,

(

b) appear on billboards or other outdoor displays that are

directly adjacent to schools or other locations primarily

oriented to minors,

(

c) use or contain cartoon figures, symbols, role models, social

media influencers, celebrities or entertainers if there are

reasonable grounds to believe it could be appealing to

minors,

(

d) use active or retired athletes in advertising except for the

exclusive purpose of advocating for responsible gambling

practices,

(

e) appear in media, including digital or online media, or venues,

including on websites, directed primarily to minors or where

most of the audience is reasonably expected to be minors,

(

f) exploit the susceptibilities, aspirations, credulity,

inexperience or lack of knowledge of individuals who may

be at a high risk of experiencing harm from engaging in

iGaming activities, or otherwise extoll the virtues of iGaming

activities, or

(

g) entice or attract individuals who may be at a high risk of

experiencing harm from engaging in iGaming activities.

(2) An iGaming operator must establish measures that limit

advertising to individuals known to the iGaming operator as being at a

high risk of experiencing harm from engaging in iGaming activities.

Truthful, no misrepresentation

4 Advertising must not

(

a) imply that playing a lottery scheme is required to fulfill

family or social obligations or solve personal problems,

(

b) promote playing lottery schemes as an alternative to

employment, as a financial investment or as a requirement

for financial security,

(

c) contain endorsements by public figures that suggest that

playing lottery schemes have contributed to their success,

(

d) encourage play as a means of recovering past gaming or

other financial losses,

(

e) make false promises or present winning as the probable

outcome,

(

f) imply that chances of winning increase with longer play or

more spending,

(

g) suggest that skill can influence the outcome if the iGaming

activity is not skill-based,

(

h) portray, suggest, condone or encourage gambling behaviour

that is socially irresponsible or could lead to financial, social

or emotional harm,

(

i) suggest that iGaming activity can provide an escape from

personal or professional problems,

(

j) portray iGaming activity as indispensable or as taking

priority over family, friends or professional or educational

commitments,

(

k) suggest that iGaming activity can enhance personal qualities,

such as improving self-image or self-esteem, or that it is a

way to gain control, superiority, recognition or admiration,

(

l) use peer pressure to induce gambling or disparage abstention,

(

m) link iGaming activity to seduction, sexual success or

enhanced attractiveness,

(

n) link iGaming activity to resilience,

(

o) suggest that engaging in iGaming activity is an important

experience in an individual's life, or

(

p) offer a product or promotion that is not reasonably attainable

without incurring substantial losses.

Minimizing harm, promoting responsible gambling

5 Advertising must be provided in a way that seeks to minimize

potential harm and promote a responsible gambling environment, and

must not include

(

a) practices directed at minors,

(

b) false or misleadingly deceptive information with intent to

attract the public, or

(

c) advertising promoting excessive play.

Promotions

6(1) A promotion must not

(

a) contain a progressive element funded by players,

(

b) alter a game's odds, payout or chance of winning, or

(

c) require a wager greater than the game minimum.

(2) As part of a promotional partnership, a person must not directly or

indirectly provide a gaming device or gaming equipment to a player to

access an iGaming site.

Third parties

7 An iGaming operator must ensure that a third party that engages in

advertising in agreement with or on behalf of the iGaming operator

complies with the Act and regulations with respect to advertising.

13(1) This

section applies to a person who has

(

a) applied for registration as an iGaming supplier under

section

49.2 of the Act,

(

b) paid the fees required by the Commission, and

(

c) received written confirmation from the Commission that the

application has been accepted for consideration by the board

and the fees have been paid.

(2) Notwithstanding

section 49.1 of the Act, a person to whom this

section applies may do the following prior to being registered as an

iGaming supplier:

(

a) make or supply equipment or services that will be used to

operate or support the operation of an iGaming site;

(

b) provide testing or maintenance services for equipment used

to operate or support the operation of an iGaming site;

(

c) provide management or consulting services for operating or

supporting the operation of an iGaming site;

(

d) advertise in accordance with the Gaming, Liquor and

Cannabis Regulation (AR 143/96) as it reads on the coming

into force of this Regulation;

(

e) enter into contracts to provide goods and services for the

operation of an iGaming site;

(

f) enable players to create accounts on an iGaming site.

(3) This

section expires 6 months after this Regulation comes into

force.

14 This Regulation comes into force on the coming into

force of

section 24(20) of the iGaming Alberta Act.

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Alberta Regulation 3/2026

Water Act

WATER (MINISTERIAL) AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Minister of Environment and Protected Areas

(M.O. 26/2025) on December 16, 2025 pursuant to

section 169 of the Water Act.

1 The Water (Ministerial) Regulation (AR 205/98) is

amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(1) is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (c.1):

(c.2) "borrow pit" means an excavation made to provide soil

material for construction;

(

b) by adding the following after clause (i):

(i.1) "dugout" means an excavation that holds water for

agricultural use for the purpose of raising animals,

watering gardens, crop production, applying pesticides

to crops or for household purposes;

(

c) by repealing clause (z.1)(ii) and substituting the

following:

(ii) a borrow pit, or

Schedule 1 is amended in

section 2(l)(iv) by striking out

"2500" and substituting "7500".

Schedule 3 is amended in

section 1

(

a) in clause (

a) by striking out "1250" and substituting

"2500";

(

b) in clause (c)

(

i) in subclause (iv) by striking out "12 500" and

substituting "15 000";

(ii) in subclause (

v) by striking out "6250" and

substituting "7500";

(

c) by repealing clause (c.1)(

i) and (ii) and substituting

the following:

(

i) the total diversion of water does not exceed

(A) 7500 cubic metres per year, where the

authorization referred to in subclause (ii)

authorizes or requires the discharge of water from

the storm drainage storage facility, or

(B) 15 000 cubic metres per year, where the

authorization referred to in subclause (ii) does not

authorize or require the discharge of water from

the storm drainage storage facility,

(ii) the storm drainage storage facility is operated under one

of the following authorizations:

(

A) an approval under the Act;

(

B) an approval under the Coal Conservation Act;

(

C) an approval or registration under the Environmental

Protection and Enhancement Act;

(

D) a licence under the Geothermal Resource

Development Act;

(

E) an approval or licence under the Mineral Resource

Development Act;

(

F) an approval or licence under the Oil and Gas

Conservation Act,

(

d) by adding the following after clause (c.1):

(c.2) a diversion of water from a borrow pit in the Green

Area, if

(

i) the total diversion of water does not exceed 1000

cubic metres per day,

(ii) the borrow pit is located on unoccupied public land

and is adjacent to a public road, access road or

well site,

(iii) the borrow pit is not frequented by fish, and

(iv) the borrow pit is not connected to a wetland or

watercourse;

(

e) by adding the following after clause (g):

(g.1) a temporary diversion of water of up to 100 cubic

metres per day per source of water for the purposes of

fire prevention, firefighting training or spill training

exercises, if

(

i) there is no adverse effect on

(

A) the aquatic environment,

(

B) a household user, licensee or traditional

agricultural user, or

(

C) any parcel of land,

and

(ii) where the source of water is frequented by fish,

(

A) the rate of pumping at the point of diversion

does not exceed 0.02 cubic metres per

second, and

(

B) fish-screening measures are in place at the

point of diversion;

(g.2) a temporary diversion of water of up to 100 cubic

metres per day per source of water for the purposes of

bridge washing, dust control or sign washing, if

(

i) there is no adverse effect on

(

A) the aquatic environment,

(

B) a household user, licensee or traditional

agricultural user, or

(

C) any parcel of land,

and

(ii) where the source of water is frequented by fish,

(

A) the rate of pumping at the point of diversion

does not exceed 0.02 cubic metres per

second, and

(

B) fish-screening measures are in place at the

point of diversion;

(

f) in clause (

l) by striking out "6250" and substituting

"7500".

Alberta Regulation 4/2026

Oil and Gas Conservation Act

OIL AND GAS CONSERVATION RULES

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 10(1) of the Oil and Gas Conservation Act.

1 The Oil and Gas Conservation Rules (AR 151/71) are

amended by this Regulation.

Section 1.020(2)(5.3.) is amended by striking out

"Requirements for the Petroleum Industry".

Section 1.030(3)(a)(ii) is amended by striking out

"incidents and emergencies" and substituting "incidents, including

emergencies".

4 The heading "Emergency Preparedness and

Response" preceding

section 8.001 is repealed and the

following is substituted:

Emergency Preparedness and Other

Operational Requirements

Emergency Preparedness and Response

Section 8.001 is amended

(

a) by repealing clause (a);

(

b) in clause (

b) by striking out "a general ERP that applies

to all wells, pipelines" and substituting "an ERP that

applies to all wells";

(

c) by repealing clause (

d) and substituting the

following:

(d) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and

ensure coordination of the emergency response;

(

d) by repealing clauses (e), (f), (

g) and (

h) and

substituting the following:

(e.1) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to

a specified geographic area or to a specified well,

facility or operation of a licensee.

6 Sections 8.002 to 8.006 are repealed and the following is

substituted:

8.0011(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all wells

and facilities of a licensee, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071, develop,

implement and maintain an EMP.

8.002 A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

8.003(1) If required by Directive 071, a licensee shall, in

accordance with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific ERP.

(2) A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071, submit each

operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for approval.

8.006 A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

8.007 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, a well or facility of a

licensee is a risk to a water body due to its location near the water

body, the Regulator may require the licensee to demonstrate that the

licensee has the equipment and the ability to implement all

applicable ERPs.

8.008 A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

8.009 A licensee shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

Section 8.050 is amended

(

a) in subsection (2) by striking out "orally report the size

and location of the spill to the appropriate field centre of the

Regulator" and substituting "report the size and location

of the spill or release to the Regulator by telephoning the

Energy and Environmental Response Line";

(

b) in subsection (3) by adding the following after

clause (d):

(d.1) the size and location of the spill or release;

Section 8.051 is amended

(

a) by adding "or released" after "is spilled";

(

b) by repealing clause (

a) and substituting the

following:

(

a) report the size and location of the spill or release to the

Regulator by telephoning the Energy and

Environmental Response Line,

(

c) in clauses (

b) and (

c) by striking out "spill" and

substituting "spilled or released".

Section 8.052 is repealed.

10 Sections 3 to 9 come into force on February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 5/2026

Oil Sands Conservation Act

OIL SANDS CONSERVATION RULES

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 20 of the Oil Sands Conservation Act.

1 The Oil Sands Conservation Rules (AR 76/88) are

amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(2) is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (c):

(c.1) "corporate ERP" means an ERP that applies to all

operations of an operator;

(

b) in clause (d.02) by striking out "means "Directive 060:

Upstream Petroleum Industry Flaring, Incinerating and

Venting" as published" and substituting "means Directive

060: Upstream Petroleum Industry Flaring, Incinerating and

Venting published";

(

c) by adding the following after clause (d.02):

(d.03) "Directive 071" means Directive 071: Emergency

Preparedness and Response published by the Regulator

and as amended from time to time;

(

d) in clause (d.12) by striking out "as published" and

substituting "published";

(

e) in clause (d.13) by adding "published by the Regulator

and as amended from time to time" after "Area";

(

f) in clause (d.14) by striking out "as published" and

substituting "published";

(

g) in clause (d.15) by adding "published by the Regulator

and as amended from time to time" after "Management";

(

h) by adding the following after clause (d.2):

(d.3) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and

ensure coordination of the emergency response;

(

i) by adding the following after clause (u.1):

(u.2) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to

a specified geographic area or to a specified operation

of an operator;

Section 8 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Emergency management program

8(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all

operations of an operator, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071, develop,

implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate emergency response plan

8.1 An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific emergency response plan

8.2(1) If required by Directive 071, an operator shall, in accordance

with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific ERP.

(2) An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071, submit each

operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for approval.

Maintenance of plan and training

8.3 An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to implement plan re water body

8.4 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, an operation of an operator

is a risk to a water body due to the operation's location near the

water body, the Regulator may require the operator to demonstrate

that the operator has the equipment and the ability to implement all

applicable ERPs.

Records, forms and notifications

8.5 An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and emergencies

8.6 An operator shall, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

Section 14 is amended by striking out ", by order,".

Section 62 is amended by striking out "June 30, 2026" and

substituting "June 30, 2031".

6 Sections 2(a), (c), (

h) and (

i) and 3 come into force on

February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 6/2026

Geothermal Resource Development Act

GEOTHERMAL RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT

RULES AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 26 of the Geothermal Resource Development Act.

1 The Geothermal Resource Development Rules

(AR 116/2022) are amended by this Regulation.

Section 3(

t) is amended by striking out "Requirements for

the Petroleum Industry".

Section 5(3)(a)(ii) is amended by striking out "incidents and

emergencies" and substituting "incidents, including emergencies".

Section 42(c), (

d) and (

e) are repealed and the following

is substituted:

(c) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and ensure

coordination of the emergency response;

(c.1) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to a

specified geographic area or to a specified well, facility or

operation of a licensee.

5 Sections 43, 44 and 45 are repealed and the following is

substituted:

Emergency management program

43(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all wells

and facilities of a licensee, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, develop,

implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate emergency response plan

44 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific emergency response plan

44.1(1) If required by Directive 071, a licensee must, in accordance

with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific ERP.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, submit each

operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for approval.

Maintenance of plan and training

44.2 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to implement plan re water body

44.3 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, a well or facility is a risk to

a water body due to its location near the water body, the Regulator

may require the licensee of the well or facility to demonstrate that

the licensee has the equipment and the ability to implement all

applicable ERPs.

Records, forms and notifications

44.4 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and emergencies

45 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

Section 50 is amended

(

a) in subsection (2) by striking out "the spill or release to

the Regulator as required by this section,

section 51 and

Directive 089" and substituting "the size and location of

the spill or release to the Regulator by telephoning the

Energy and Environmental Response Line";

(

b) in subsection (3)(

e) by adding "size and" before

"location".

Section 51 is amended

(

a) by adding "or released" after "is spilled";

(

b) by repealing clause (

a) and substituting the

following:

(

a) report the size and location of the spill or release to the

Regulator by telephoning the Energy and

Environmental Response Line,

(

c) in clauses (

b) and (

c) by striking out "spill" and

substituting "spilled or released".

Section 52 is repealed.

9 Sections 3 to 8 come into force on February 2, 2026.

Alberta Regulation 7/2026

Mineral Resource Development Act

BRINE-HOSTED MINERAL RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT

RULES AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 54 of the Mineral Resource Development Act.

1 The Brine-hosted Mineral Resource Development Rules

(AR 17/2023) are amended by this Regulation.

Section 4 is amended

(

a) in clause (

a) by striking out "in Support of the ERCB's

Liability Management Programs";

(

b) in clause (

u) by striking out "ERCB";

(

c) in clause (

v) by striking out "Requirements for the

Petroleum Industry".

Section 6(3)(a)(ii) is amended by striking out "incidents and

emergencies" and substituting "incidents, including emergencies".

Section 49(c), (

d) and (

e) are repealed and the following

is substituted:

(c) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and

ensure coordination of the emergency response;

(c.1) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to

a specified geographic area or to a specified well,

facility or operation of a licensee.

5 Sections 50, 51 and 52 are repealed and the following is

substituted:

Emergency management program

50(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all wells

and facilities of a licensee, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, develop,

implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate emergency response plan

51 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific emergency response plan

51.1(1) If required by Directive 071, a licensee must, in accordance

with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific ERP.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, submit each

operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for approval.

Maintenance of plan and training

51.2 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to implement plan re water body

51.3 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, a well or facility is a risk to

a water body due to its location near the water body, the Regulator

may require the licensee of the well or facility to demonstrate that

the licensee has the equipment and the ability to implement all

applicable ERPs.

Records, forms and notifications

51.4 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and emergencies

52 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

Section 57 is amended

(

a) in subsection (2) by striking out "appropriate field

centre of the Regulator" and substituting "Regulator by

telephoning the Energy and Environmental Response Line";

(

b) in subsection (3)(

e) by adding "size and" before

"location".

Section 58 is amended

(

a) by adding "or released" after "are spilled";

(

b) by repealing clause (

a) and substituting the

following:

(

a) report the size and location of the spill or release to the

Regulator by telephoning the Energy and

Environmental Response Line,

(

c) in clauses (

b) and (

c) by striking out "spill" and

substituting "spilled or released".

Section 59 is repealed.

9 Sections 3 to 8 come into force on February 2, 2026.

Alberta Regulation 8/2026

Pipeline Act

PIPELINE RULES AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 3 of the Pipeline Act.

1 The Pipeline Rules (AR 125/2023) are amended by this

Regulation.

Section 1(1) is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (f):

(f.1) "corporate ERP" means an ERP that applies to all

pipelines of a licensee;

(

b) by adding the following after clause (u):

(u.1) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and

ensure coordination of the emergency response;

(

c) by adding the following after clause (hh):

(hh.1) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to

a specified geographic area or to a specified pipeline or

operation of a licensee;

Section 3(3)(a)(ii) is amended by striking out "incidents and

emergencies, including, without limitation, leaks and breaks" and

substituting "incidents, including emergencies".

Section 5(2) is amended by striking out "Emergency

24-Hour".

Section 11 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Emergency management program

11(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all

pipelines of a licensee, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, develop,

implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate emergency response plan

11.1 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific emergency response plan

11.2(1) If required by Directive 071, a licensee must, in accordance

with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific ERP.

(2) A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071, submit each

operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for approval.

Maintenance of plan and training

11.3 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to implement plan re water body

11.4 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, a pipeline is a risk to a

water body due to its location near the water body, the Regulator

may require the licensee of the pipeline to demonstrate that the

licensee has the equipment and the ability to implement all

applicable ERPs.

Records, forms and notifications

11.5 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and emergencies

11.6 A licensee must, in accordance with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

Section 67 is amended

(

a) in subsection (1) by striking out "incident" and

substituting "leak, break or contact damage";

(

b) by repealing subsection (3)(

a) and substituting the

following:

(

a) the time and location of the leak, break or contact

damage,

(

c) in subsection (4)(

b) by striking out "incident" and

substituting "leak, break or contact damage".

7 This Regulation comes into force on February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 9/2026

Coal Conservation Act

COAL CONSERVATION RULES

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 9 of the Coal Conservation Act.

1 The Coal Conservation Rules (AR 270/81) are amended

by this Regulation.

Section 1(1) is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (c.1):

(c.2) "corporate ERP" means an ERP that applies to all

operations of the holder of a permit or licence;

(c.3) "Directive 071" means Directive 071: Emergency

Preparedness and Response published by the Regulator

on December 1, 2025;

(

b) by adding the following after clause (e):

(e.1) "emergency" means a present or imminent event,

outside the scope of normal operations, that requires

prompt coordination of resources to protect the health,

safety or welfare of people or to limit damage to

property and the environment;

(e.2) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and

ensure coordination of the emergency response;

(

c) by adding the following after clause (g):

(g.1) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to

a specified geographic area or to a specified operation

of the holder of a permit or licence;

Section 28(2)(

a) is repealed and the following is

substituted:

(

a) immediately report the size and location of the flow of oil or

gas to the Regulator by telephoning the Energy and

Environmental Response Line, and

4 The following is added after

section 68:

Part 4.1

Emergency Preparedness and Response

Emergency Management Program

68.1(1) In this section, "EMP" means a corporate emergency

management program to

(

a) identify and mitigate risks associated with all operations of

the holder of a permit or licence, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071, develop, implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate Emergency Response Plan

68.2 The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific Emergency Response Plan

68.3(1) If required by Directive 071, the holder of a permit or licence

shall, in accordance with Directive 071, develop an operation-specific

ERP.

(2) The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071, submit each operation-specific ERP to the Regulator for

approval.

Maintenance of Plan and Training

68.4 The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to Implement Plan in Relation to Water Body

68.5 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, an operation of the holder of

a permit or licence is a risk to a water body due to the operation's

location near the water body, the Regulator may require the holder of

the permit or licence to demonstrate that the permittee or licensee has

the equipment and the ability to implement all applicable ERPs.

Records, Forms and Notifications

68.6 The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and Emergencies

68.7 The holder of a permit or licence shall, in accordance with

Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

5 This Regulation comes into force on February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 10/2026

Mineral Resource Development Act

ROCK-HOSTED MINERAL RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT

RULES AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 13, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Energy Regulator on November 26, 2025

pursuant to

section 54 of the Mineral Resource Development Act.

1 The Rock-hosted Mineral Resource Development Rules

(AR 14/2024) are amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(1) is amended by adding the following after

clause (c):

(c.1) "corporate ERP" means an ERP that applies to all operations

of a permittee, licensee or approval holder;

(c.2) "emergency" means a present or imminent event, outside the

scope of normal operations, that requires prompt

coordination of resources to protect the health, safety or

welfare of people or to limit damage to property and the

environment;

(c.3) "ERP" means an emergency response plan to protect the

public and the environment that includes

(

i) criteria for assessing an emergency,

(ii) procedures to mobilize response personnel and

agencies, and

(iii) procedures to establish communications and ensure

coordination of the emergency response;

(c.4) "operation-specific ERP" means an ERP that applies to a

specified geographic area or to a specified operation of a

permittee, licensee or approval holder;

Section 6(3)(a)(ii) is amended by striking out "incidents and

emergencies" and substituting "incidents, including emergencies".

Section 25(2)(

a) is repealed and the following is

substituted:

(

a) immediately report the size and location of the flow of oil or

gas to the Regulator by telephoning the Energy and

Environmental Response Line, and

Section 34 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Emergency management program

34(1) In this section, "EMP" means a comprehensive corporate

emergency management program to

(

a) identify, assess and mitigate hazards associated with all

operations of a permittee, licensee or approval holder, and

(

b) manage the preparation for and response to an emergency.

(2) A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071, develop, implement and maintain an EMP.

Corporate emergency response plan

34.1 A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071,

(

a) develop a corporate ERP, and

(

b) submit the corporate ERP to the Regulator.

Operation-specific emergency response plan

34.2(1) If required by Directive 071, a permittee, licensee or

approval holder must, in accordance with Directive 071, develop an

operation-specific ERP.

(2) A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071, submit each operation-specific ERP to the

Regulator for approval.

Maintenance of plan and training

34.3 A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain the corporate ERP and any operation-specific ERP,

and

(

b) undertake training and exercises related to the corporate ERP

and any operation-specific ERP.

Ability to implement plan re water body

34.4 If, in the opinion of the Regulator, an operation of a

permittee, licensee or approval holder is a risk to a water body due to

the operation's location near the water body, the Regulator may

require the permittee, licensee or approval holder to demonstrate that

the permittee, licensee or approval holder has the equipment and the

ability to implement the ERP.

Records, forms and notifications

34.5 A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071,

(

a) maintain and submit records to the Regulator,

(

b) submit forms to the Regulator, and

(

c) provide notifications to the Regulator

in relation to emergency preparedness and responses.

Incidents and emergencies

34.6 A permittee, licensee or approval holder must, in accordance

with Directive 071,

(

a) manage incidents, and

(

b) in the case of an incident that is an emergency,

(

i) implement all applicable ERPs, and

(ii) report the emergency to the Regulator.

6 This Regulation comes into force on February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 11/2026

Professional Governance Act

PROFESSIONAL GOVERNANCE

GENERAL REGULATION

Filed: January 15, 2026

For information only: Made by the Minister of Advanced Education (M.O.

101/2026) on January 12, 2026 pursuant to

section 207 of the Professional

Governance Act.

Table of Contents

1 Applications for designation as professional regulatory organization

2 Criteria and factors re applications for designation as professional

regulatory organization

3 Applications for amalgamation

4 Criteria and factors re applications for amalgamation

5 Annual report

6 Directory of officials

7 Code of ethics and conduct and practice standards and guidelines

8 Register

9 Record of information

10 Website

11 Designation reviews

12 Coming into force

Applications for designation as professional regulatory organization

1 An application for designation as a professional regulatory

organization must include

(

a) a completed copy of the application form published in

accordance with

section 5(2) of the Act, and

(

b) all information required to be included with the application

form, as published in accordance with

section 5(2) of the Act.

Criteria and factors re applications for designation as professional

regulatory organization

2(1) When reviewing an application and providing advice on whether

it would protect the public interest to designate a professional

association as a professional regulatory organization under the Act, a

professional governance officer must consider the following criteria

and factors:

(

a) whether the membership of the professional association

consists of a group of persons practicing an identifiable

profession or professions;

(

b) the degree to which designating the professional association

as a professional regulatory organization would serve to

safeguard life, health or the environment, or the safety,

property or economic interests of the public, as applicable;

(

c) the potential costs and benefits of regulating under this Act

the professionals the professional association consists of,

including the expected effect on

(

i) access to the services of the profession or professions to

which the professional association relates, including the

availability of the professionals the professional

association consists of,

(ii) education and training programs relating to the

profession or professions to which the professional

association relates,

(iii) the quality and efficiency of services provided by

professionals in the profession or professions to which

the professional association relates, and

(iv) the price of services provided by the professionals the

professional association consists of;

(

d) the risk to the public from incompetent, unethical or

incapacitated practice by members of the profession or

professions the professional association consists of;

(

e) what effect, if any, there would be on any agreements on

trade and labour mobility to which the Government of

Canada or Government of Alberta is a signatory if the

profession or professions to which the professional

association relates becomes a regulated profession and the

professional association is designated as a professional

regulatory organization;

(

f) whether there are a sufficient number of persons engaged in

the profession or professions to which the professional

association relates to warrant designation as a professional

regulatory organization;

(

g) whether the professional association consists of a significant

proportion of the persons engaged in the practice of the

profession or professions to which the professional

association relates;

(

h) whether the purpose or objects of the professional association

relate to advancing the interests of the profession or

professions to which the professional association relates;

(

i) whether the proposed professional regulatory organization

will be able to carry out its powers, duties and

responsibilities under the Act;

(

j) whether another professional association or an existing

professional regulatory organization is better placed to carry

out the powers, duties and responsibilities of the Act with

respect to the members of the profession or professions to

which the professional association relates;

(

k) the extent and purposes for which the professional

association is governed by an Alberta enactment;

(

l) whether the proposed name of the professional regulatory

organization may cause the public undue confusion in

relation to the name of a professional regulatory organization

or another profession or trade governed by an Alberta

enactment;

(

m) whether a current or proposed title to be used by members of

the proposed professional regulatory organization, alone or in

combination with any current or proposed name, description,

abbreviation, initials, letter, symbol or other words, is the

same as or may cause the public undue confusion in relation

to a title that is used alone or in combination with any name,

description, abbreviation, initials, letter, symbol or other

words by members of a professional regulatory organization

or another profession governed by an Alberta enactment;

(

n) whether other professional associations or professional

regulatory organizations support the professional

association's application for designation as a professional

regulatory organization;

(

o) whether the professional association represents its members

in the negotiation of collective bargaining agreements;

(

p) the length of time the professional association has existed

and whether it has been incorporated;

(

q) the financial position of the professional association;

(

r) the sufficiency of the proposed preliminary budget for the

first year of operation for the proposed professional

regulatory organization, including the proposed preliminary

budget for the management of the proposed professional

regulatory organization and for carrying out its powers,

duties and responsibilities under the Act;

(

s) the long-term economic viability of the proposed

professional regulatory organization;

(

t) the education, training, experience, knowledge, skills,

proficiency or judgment required for registration as a

member of the professional association;

(

u) what, if any, continuing competence program is in place for

members of the professional association, and how the

continuing competence program would be maintained if the

professional association is designated as a professional

regulatory organization;

(

v) whether the professional association has existing or proposed

bylaws;

(

w) the professional association's governance structure;

(

x) any other factors the professional governance officer

considers relevant.

(2) When deciding whether to recommend that the Lieutenant

Governor in Council issue an order designating a professional

association as a professional regulatory organization, the Minister must

consider the following criteria and factors:

(

a) the criteria and factors identified in subsection (1)(

a) to (w);

(

b) any other factors the Minister considers relevant.

Applications for amalgamation

3 An application for amalgamation must include

(

a) a completed copy of the application form published in

accordance with

section 13(2) of the Act, and

(

b) all information required to be included with the application

form, as published in accordance with

section 13(2) of the

Act.

Criteria and factors re applications for amalgamation

4(1) When reviewing an application and providing advice on whether

it would protect the public interest to amalgamate 2 or more

professional regulatory organizations or one or more professional

regulatory organizations and one or more professional associations into

one amalgamated professional regulatory organization, a professional

governance officer must consider the following criteria and factors:

(

a) whether the membership of the applicant professional

regulatory organizations and professional associations

consists of a group of persons practicing an identifiable

profession or professions;

(

b) the degree to which amalgamating the applicant professional

regulatory organizations and professional associations would

serve to safeguard life, health or the environment, or the

safety, property or economic interests of the public, as

applicable;

(

c) the potential costs and benefits of regulating the professionals

the applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations consist of under an amalgamated

professional regulatory organization, including the expected

effect on

(

i) access to the services of the profession or professions to

which the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations relate,

including the availability of the professionals the

applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations consist of,

(ii) education and training programs relating to the

profession or professions to which the applicant

professional regulatory organizations and professional

associations relate,

(iii) the quality and efficiency of services provided by

professionals in the profession or professions to which

the applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations relate, and

(iv) the price of services provided by the professionals the

applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations consist of;

(

d) the risk to the public from incompetent, unethical or

incapacitated practice by members of the profession or

professions the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations consist of;

(

e) what effect, if any, there would be on any agreements on

trade and labour mobility to which the Government of

Canada or Government of Alberta is a signatory if the

applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations are amalgamated;

(

f) whether the number of members in the applicant professional

regulatory organizations and professional associations is

appropriate for amalgamation;

(

g) whether the applicant professional regulatory organizations

and professional associations consist of a significant

proportion of the persons engaged in the practice of the

profession or professions the amalgamated professional

regulatory organization would regulate;

(

h) whether the purpose or objects of any applicant professional

associations relate to advancing the interests of the profession

or professions the amalgamated professional regulatory

organization would regulate;

(

i) whether there is a common interest in the proposed

amalgamated professional regulatory organization, including

whether the professions the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations relate to are

similar professions;

(

j) whether there is a reasonable rationale for the proposed

amalgamation;

(

k) whether the proposed amalgamated professional regulatory

organization will be able to carry out its powers, duties and

responsibilities under the Act;

(

l) whether an existing professional regulatory organization is

better placed to carry out the powers, duties and

responsibilities of the Act with respect to the members of the

profession or professions the applicant professional

regulatory organizations and professional associations consist

of;

(

m) the extent and purposes for which any applicant professional

associations are governed by an Alberta enactment;

(

n) whether the proposed name of the amalgamated professional

regulatory organization may cause the public undue

confusion in relation to the name of a professional regulatory

organization or another profession or trade governed by an

Alberta enactment;

(

o) whether a proposed title to be used by members of the

amalgamated professional regulatory organization, alone or

in combination with any name, description, abbreviation,

initials, letter, symbol or other words, is the same as or may

cause the public undue confusion in relation to a title that is

used alone or in combination with any name, description,

abbreviation, initials, letter, symbol or other words by

members of a professional regulatory organization or another

profession governed by an Alberta enactment;

(

p) whether other professional associations or professional

regulatory organizations support the applicant professional

regulatory organizations' and professional associations'

application for amalgamation;

(

q) whether the applicant professional regulatory organizations

and professional associations represent their members in the

negotiation of collective bargaining agreements;

(

r) the length of time the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations have existed and

whether the applicant professional associations, if any, have

been incorporated;

(

s) the financial position of the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations;

(

t) the sufficiency of the proposed preliminary budget for the

first year of operation for the proposed amalgamated

professional regulatory organization, including the proposed

preliminary budget for the management of the proposed

amalgamated professional regulatory organization and for

carrying out its powers, duties and responsibilities under the

Act;

(

u) the long-term economic viability of the proposed

amalgamated professional regulatory organization;

(

v) the education, training, experience, knowledge, skills,

proficiency or judgment required for registration as a

member of the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations;

(

w) what, if any, continuing competence program is in place for

members of the applicant professional regulatory

organizations and professional associations, and how the

continuing competence program would be maintained if the

applicant professional regulatory organizations and

professional associations are amalgamated as a professional

regulatory organization;

(

x) whether any applicant professional associations have existing

bylaws;

(

y) whether the applicant professional regulatory organizations

and professional associations have proposed bylaws for the

amalgamated professional regulatory organization;

(

z) the governance structure of any applicant professional

associations;

(aa) whether the applicant professional regulatory organizations

and professional associations have a proposed governing

body structure;

(bb) how transitional matters will be addressed, including

transitions respecting

(

i) the composition of the governing body, committees,

tribunals, panels, task forces and sub-committees of the

amalgamated professional regulatory organization,

(ii) the directory of officials referred to in

section 49 of the

Act,

(iii) the registration of registrants of the amalgamated

professional regulatory organization,

(iv) the code of ethics and conduct, practice standards and

guidelines and bylaws of the amalgamated professional

regulatory organization, and

(

v) ongoing applications, practice reviews, investigations,

alternative complaint resolution processes, disciplinary

hearings and appeals;

(cc) any other factors the professional governance officer

considers relevant.

(2) When deciding whether to recommend that the Lieutenant

Governor in Council issue an order amalgamating 2 or more

professional regulatory organizations or one or more professional

regulatory organizations and one or more professional associations into

one amalgamated professional regulatory organization, the Minister

must consider the following criteria and factors:

(

a) the criteria and factors identified in subsection (1)(

a) to (bb);

(

b) any other factors the Minister considers relevant.

Annual report

5 A professional regulatory organization's annual report must contain

the following:

(

a) registration information, including the following information

as of the end of the professional regulatory organization's

most recent reporting year:

(

i) the number of registrants in each category and class of

registrant;

(ii) the number of complete applications for registration

received by the professional regulatory organization in

each category and class of registrant during the

reporting year;

(iii) the number of registrants in each category and class of

registrant registered by the professional regulatory

organization during the reporting year;

(iv) the number of non-regulated members of the

professional regulatory organization;

(

v) the number of non-regulated members enrolled as a

non-regulated member of the professional regulatory

organization during the reporting year;

(

b) a statement that

(

i) identifies the number of meetings or hearings held by

each committee or tribunal of the professional

regulatory organization during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent reporting year,

and

(ii) provides a

summary of the activities of each committee

and tribunal during the professional regulatory

organization's most recent reporting year;

(

c) a

summary of information about the professional regulatory

organization's continuing competence program, including the

number of courses or session offerings and participation rates

for those courses or offerings during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent reporting year;

(

d) a

summary of information about the professional regulatory

organization's practice review program, if one has been

established, including the number of practice reviews

commenced during the professional regulatory organization's

most recent reporting year, the number of practice reviews

continued from a prior reporting year and the status or

disposition of those practice reviews;

(

e) a statement that identifies

(

i) the number of complaints received by the professional

regulatory organization respecting registrants of the

professional regulatory organization during the

professional regulatory organization's most recent

reporting year, broken down by category and class of

registrant unless the identity of an individual who is the

subject of the information can be readily ascertained if

the information is broken down in this manner,

(ii) the number of registrants who were the subject of a

complaint during the professional regulatory

organization's most recent reporting year, and

(iii) the status of complaints received by the professional

regulatory organization, including

(

A) the number of complaints received by the

professional regulatory organization in respect of

which a decision was made under

section 94 or

104 of the Act during the professional regulatory

organization's most recent reporting year that no

further action should be taken,

(

B) the number of investigations that

(

I) were continued during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent

reporting year from a prior reporting year,

(II) were commenced during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent

reporting year,

(III) were concluded during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent

reporting year, and

(IV) remain ongoing as of the end of the

professional regulatory organization's most

recent reporting year,

(

C) the average number of days taken to complete an

investigation completed during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent reporting

year,

(

D) the number of hearings held during the

professional regulatory organization's most recent

reporting year,

(

E) the number of hearings that were closed to the

public in whole or in part during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent reporting

year, and

(

F) the number of appeals that were commenced

during the professional regulatory organization's

most recent reporting year or continued from a

prior reporting year, and the status or disposition

of those appeals;

(

f) a

summary of information respecting alternative complaint

resolution processes and sanction agreements that were

entered into by registrants of the professional regulatory

organization during the professional regulatory

organization's most recent reporting year, including the

number of complaints that were resolved through an

alternative complaint resolution process or a sanction

agreement and the types of situations in which an alternative

complaint resolution process or a sanction agreement was

used;

(

g) information respecting tribunal orders and sanctions imposed

under a sanction agreement during the professional

regulatory organization's most recent reporting year,

including the number of registrants

(

i) whose registration was suspended or cancelled,

(ii) who were required to pay a fine, and

(iii) who had conditions or restrictions imposed on them or

who provided undertakings affecting their practice;

(

h) an audited financial statement or other financial information

set out in a form and manner established by the Minister;

(

i) any other information or records requested by the Minister.

Directory of officials

6 A professional regulatory organization's directory of officials must

include the name and email address for the following:

(

a) the registrar of the professional regulatory organization;

(

b) the chair of the professional regulatory organization's

governing body;

(

c) the chief executive officer or executive director of the

professional regulatory organization, if any;

(

d) the president of the professional regulatory organization, if

any.

Code of ethics and conduct and practice standards and guidelines

7(1) A professional regulatory organization's code of ethics and

conduct must contain a set of ethical principles and obligations relating

to the practice of the profession or professions the professional

regulatory organization regulates and must set out the ethical

responsibilities and conduct expected of registrants.

(2) A professional regulatory organization's practice standards and

guidelines

(

a) must establish minimum levels of performance or technical

competence expected of registrants in carrying out their

professional duties, and

(

b) may provide general guidance to support registrants in

interpreting and applying the professional regulatory

organization's code of ethics and conduct and practice

standards and guidelines.

Register

8 A professional regulatory organization's Register must include the

following information for each registrant of the professional regulatory

organization:

(

a) the name of the registrant;

(

b) the category and class of the registrant's registration;

(

c) any prohibitions, conditions, limits, restrictions, suspensions

or requirements that apply to the registrant, the registrant's

registration or the practice of the registrant.

Record of information

9 For the purposes of

section 71(1) of the Act, each professional

regulatory organization must establish and maintain a record with the

following information about each registrant:

(

a) the registrant's name;

(

b) the registrant's date of registration;

(

c) the registrant's unique registration number;

(

d) the expiry date of the registrant's evidence of registration, if

applicable;

(

e) any undertakings that apply to the registrant, the registrant's

registration or the practice of the registrant;

(

f) if the registrant's registration is restricted to a specific period,

the duration of that period;

(

g) the name of the registrant's employer, if applicable;

(

h) the business phone number and email address of the

registrant, if any;

(

i) in the case of a business registrant, the address of its

registered head office, if applicable.

Website

10 A professional regulatory organization's website must contain the

following:

(

a) the most recent annual report of the professional regulatory

organization;

(

b) notices of disciplinary hearings under the Act;

(

c) subject to

section 125(3) of the Act, final decisions made by

the professional regulatory organization's discipline tribunal

or summaries of those decisions;

(

d) subject to

section 159(3) of the Act, final decisions made by

the professional regulatory organization's appeal tribunal or

summaries of those decisions;

(

e) a statement providing notice that an appeal to the Court of

Appeal has been filed with respect to a matter or decision

under the Act and the status of each appeal;

(

f) notice of court decisions relating to an appeal from a decision

made under the Act;

(

g) the bylaws of the professional regulatory organization.

Designation reviews

11 In conducting a designation review under

section 196 of the Act,

when considering whether a professional regulatory organization

continues to protect the public interest, a professional governance

officer must consider the following:

(

a) the degree to which the professional regulatory organization

serves to safeguard life, health or the environment, or the

safety, property or economic interests of the public, as

applicable;

(

b) the potential costs and benefits of continuing to regulate

under this Act the profession or professions the professional

regulatory organization regulates, including the expected

effect on

(

i) access to the services of the profession or professions

the professional regulatory organization regulates,

including the availability of the professionals the

professional regulatory organization consists of,

(ii) education and training programs relating to the

profession or professions the professional regulatory

organization regulates,

(iii) the quality and efficiency of services provided by

professionals in the profession or professions the

professional regulatory organization regulates, and

(iv) the price of services provided by the professionals the

professional regulatory organization consists of;

(

c) the risk to the public from incompetent, unethical or

incapacitated practice by members of the profession or

professions the professional regulatory organization

regulates;

(

d) whether the professional regulatory organization consists of a

significant proportion of the persons engaged in the practice

of the profession or professions the professional regulatory

organization regulates;

(

e) whether there are a sufficient number of persons engaged in

the profession or professions the professional regulatory

organization regulates to warrant continued designation as a

professional regulatory organization;

(

f) whether the professional regulatory organization is able to

carry out its powers, duties and responsibilities under the

Act;

(

g) whether the professional regulatory organization is

effectively carrying out its powers, duties and responsibilities

under the Act;

(

h) whether another professional regulatory organization is better

placed to carry out the powers, duties and responsibilities of

the Act with respect to the members of the professional

regulatory organization;

(

i) whether the professional regulatory organization represents

its members in the negotiation of collective bargaining

agreements;

(

j) the financial position of the professional regulatory

organization;

(

k) the sufficiency of the budget for the operation of the

professional regulatory organization, including the budget for

the management of the professional regulatory organization

and for carrying out its powers, duties and responsibilities

under the Act;

(

l) the long-term economic viability of the professional

regulatory organization;

(

m) the education, training, experience, knowledge, skills,

proficiency or judgment required for registration as a

registrant of the professional regulatory organization;

(

n) what continuing competence program is in place for

registrants of the professional regulatory organization and

how the continuing competence program is maintained;

(

o) whether bylaws, a code of ethics and conduct and practice

standards and guidelines have been established by the

professional regulatory organization in accordance with the

Act, and whether the professional regulatory organization is

complying with and enforcing them;

(

p) any other factors the professional governance officer

considers relevant.

Coming into force

12 This Regulation comes into force on the coming into force of

section 4 of the Professional Governance Act.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 12/2026

Health Professions Act

LICENSED PRACTICAL NURSES PROFESSION

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 16, 2026

For information only: Made by the Council of the College of Licensed Practical

Nurses of Alberta on December 12, 2025 jointly with a corresponding order made by

the Minister of Primary and Preventative Health Services (M.O. 12/2026) on January

14, 2026 pursuant to

section 131 of the Health Professions Act.

1 The Licensed Practical Nurses Profession Regulation

(AR 81/2003) is amended by this Regulation.

2 The title of the Regulation is repealed and the following

is substituted:

LICENSED PRACTICAL NURSES AND HEALTH

CARE AIDES PROFESSION REGULATION

Section 1 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Definitions

1 In this Regulation,

(a) "College" means the College of Licensed Practical Nurses

and Health Care Aides of Alberta;

(b) "Council" means the council of the College;

(c) "health care aides courtesy register" means the health care

aides courtesy register category of the regulated members

register;

(d) "health care aides general register" means the health care

aides general register category of the regulated members

register;

(e) "health care aides provisional register" means the health care

aides provisional register category of the regulated members

register;

(f) "health care aides transitional register" means the health care

aides transitional register category of the regulated members

register;

(g) "licensed practical nurses courtesy register" means the

licensed practical nurses courtesy register category of the

regulated members register;

(h) "licensed practical nurses general register" means the

licensed practical nurses general register category of the

regulated members register;

(i) "licensed practical nurses provisional register" means the

licensed practical nurses provisional register category of the

regulated members register;

(j) "Registrar" means the registrar of the College;

(k) "Registration Committee" means the registration committee

of the College.

Section 2(

a) to (

e) are repealed and the following are

substituted:

(

a) health care aides courtesy register;

(

b) health care aides general register;

(

c) health care aides provisional register;

(

d) health care aides transitional register;

(

e) licensed practical nurses courtesy register;

(

f) licensed practical nurses general register;

(

g) licensed practical nurses provisional register.

Section 3 is amended

(

a) in subsection (1)

(

i) by striking out "general register" and substituting

"licensed practical nurses general register";

(ii) in clause (

b) by striking out "successfully

completed" and substituting "passed";

(

b) by adding the following after subsection (1):

(1.1) An applicant for registration as a regulated member on

the health care aides general register must

(

a) have successfully completed a health care aide

education program approved by the Council, and

(

b) have passed a registration examination approved

by the Council.

(

c) in subsection (2)

(

i) in the portion preceding clause (

a) by striking

out "subsection (1)" and substituting "subsection

(1) or (1.1), as the case may be,";

(ii) in clause (

a) by striking out "subsection (1)" and

substituting "subsection (1) or (1.1), as applicable";

(iii) by repealing clause (

c) and substituting the

following:

(

c) have been actively engaged, in accordance with

criteria approved by the Council, in the practice of

(

i) in the case of registration under subsection

(1), practical nursing, or

(ii) in the case of registration under subsection

(1.1), being a health care aide.

Section 5 is repealed.

Section 6 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Provisional registration

6(1) An applicant who has fulfilled the registration requirements of

section 3(1)(

a) or 3(1.1)(a), as the case may be, but has not passed a

registration examination approved by the Council may be registered

on the licensed practical nurses provisional register or health care

aides provisional register, as the case may be.

(2) A regulated member on the licensed practical nurses provisional

register or health care aides provisional register, as the case may be,

must pass the applicable registration examination approved by the

Council within one year of their registration on the applicable

provisional register.

(3) A regulated member is entitled to three attempts, within one year

of their registration, at passing the registration examination referred

to in subsection (2).

(4) A regulated member's registration on the licensed practical

nurses provisional register or health care aides provisional register,

as the case may be, expires one year from the date on which the

regulated member was registered on the applicable provisional

register unless

(

a) the registration is cancelled and the regulated member's

name is removed from the applicable provisional register in

accordance with subsection (5), or

(

b) the regulated member passes the registration examination

referred to in subsection (2) and the regulated member's

name is removed from the applicable provisional register in

accordance with subsection (6).

(5) The Registrar must, on notification of a regulated member on the

licensed practical nurses provisional register or health care aides

provisional register, as the case may be, being found to be

unsuccessful on a third attempt at passing the registration

examination referred to in subsection (2),

(

a) cancel the regulated member's registration on the applicable

provisional register, and

(

b) remove the regulated member's name from the applicable

provisional register.

(6) As soon as practicable on a regulated member on the licensed

practical nurses provisional register or health care aides provisional

register, as the case may be, passing the registration examination

referred to in subsection (2) within the applicable period, the

Registrar must

(

a) remove the regulated member's name from the applicable

provisional register, and

(

b) enter the regulated member's name on the appropriate

category of the register of regulated members, as determined

by the Registrar.

(7) A regulated member on the licensed practical nurses provisional

register or health care aides provisional register, as the case may be,

may practise only while supervised in a manner satisfactory to the

Registrar or Registration Committee.

Section 7 is amended

(

a) in subsection (1)

(

i) by adding "or health care aide, as the case may be,"

after "practical nurse";

(ii) by striking out "courtesy register" and

substituting "applicable courtesy register";

(

b) by repealing subsection (2) and substituting the

following:

(2) A regulated member may be registered on the licensed

practical nurses courtesy register or health care aides courtesy

register, as the case may be, for a period of not more than 3

months, as specified by the Registrar.

(

c) in subsection (3)

(

i) by striking out "A person who is registered on the

courtesy register" and substituting "A regulated

member who is registered on the licensed practical

nurses courtesy register or health care aides courtesy

register, as the case may be,";

(ii) by striking out "registration on the courtesy register"

and substituting "registration on the applicable

courtesy register".

Section 8 is amended by striking out "general register" and

substituting "licensed practical nurses general register or health care

aides general register, as applicable".

Section 12 is repealed and the following is substituted:

Authorization to use titles, etc.

12(1) A regulated member on the licensed practical nurses general

register, licensed practical nurses provisional register or licensed

practical nurses courtesy register, as the case may be, may use any of

the following titles or abbreviations:

(a) "licensed practical nurse";

(b) "practical nurse";

(c) "nursing assistant";

(d) "L.P.N.";

(e) "R.N.A.".

(2) A regulated member on the health care aides general register,

health care aides provisional register, health care aides courtesy

register or health care aides transitional register, as the case may be,

may use the following title or abbreviation:

(a) "health care aide";

(b) "H.C.A.".

(3) A regulated member may use the word "registered" in

conjunction with a title referred to in subsection (1) or (2), as

applicable.

Section 36 is repealed.

12 The following is added before

section 37:

Transitional re Health Care Aide Directory

36.1(1) In this section,

(a) "Health Care Aide Directory" means the Health Care Aide

Directory referred to in

section 9 of

Schedule 10 to the Act;

(b) "member" means an individual who is enrolled in the Health

Care Aide Directory.

(2) A member with a competency status of certified, substantially

equivalent or deemed competent, as the case may be, immediately

before the coming into force of

section 9 of

Schedule 10 to the Act

is, on the coming into force of that section, deemed to be a regulated

member on the health care aides general register.

(3) A member with the competency status of certified in-progress

immediately before the coming into force of

section 9 of

Schedule

10 to the Act is, on the coming into force of that section, deemed to

be a regulated member on the health care aides provisional register.

(4) A member with the competency status of substantially

equivalent in-progress or deemed competent in-progress, as the case

may be, immediately before the coming into force of

section 9 of

Schedule 10 to the Act is, on the coming into force of that section,

deemed to be a regulated member on the health care aides

transitional register.

(5) Subject to subsection (7), a regulated member on the health care

aides transitional register must, within one year of the date on which

section 9 of

Schedule 10 to the Act comes into force, successfully

complete the requirements of the applicable competency status of the

Health Care Aide Directory as those requirements existed

immediately before the coming into force of that section.

(6) At least 30 calendar days before the date on which the period

referred to in subsection (5) expires, a regulated member on the

health care aides transitional register may, in a form and manner

determined by the Registrar, make a request to the Registrar for an

extension of that period.

(7) On receiving a regulated member's request made under

subsection (6), the Registrar may extend the period referred to in

subsection (5) as it applies to the regulated member

(

a) by not more than one year, and

(

b) only if the Registrar is satisfied that extenuating

circumstances apply to the regulated member's case that

justify the extension.

(8) A regulated member's registration on the health care aides

transitional register is cancelled on the earlier of the following:

(

a) the date on which the regulated member is found to be

unsuccessful in the completion of the requirements referred

to in subsection (5);

(

b) the date on which the applicable period for successfully

completing the requirements under subsection (5) expires.

(9) On the cancellation of a regulated member's registration under

subsection (8), the Registrar must remove the regulated member's

name from the register.

(10) Immediately on a regulated member becoming aware of a

finding of unsuccessful completion of the requirements referred to in

subsection (5) within the applicable period, the regulated member

must notify the Registrar of that finding.

(11) As soon as practicable on a regulated member on the health

care aides transitional register successfully completing the

requirements referred to in subsection (5) within the applicable

period, the Registrar must

(

a) remove the regulated member's name from the health care

aides transitional register, and

(

b) enter the regulated member's name on the appropriate

category of the register of regulated members, as determined

by the Registrar.

(12) A regulated member on the health care aides transitional

register may practise only while supervised in a manner satisfactory

to the Registrar or Registration Committee.

12 This Regulation comes into force on February 2, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 13/2026

Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

EGG FARMERS OF ALBERTA MARKETING

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 16, 2026

For information only: Made by the Egg Farmers of Alberta on November 5, 2025

and approved by the Alberta Agricultural Products Marketing Council on December

4, 2025 pursuant to sections 26 and 27 of the Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

and

section 9 of the Egg Farmers of Alberta Plan Regulation (AR 26/2022).

1 The Egg Farmers of Alberta Marketing Regulation

(AR 293/97) is amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(1)(

e) and (

i) are amended by striking out

"Federal-Provincial" and substituting

"Federal-Provincial-Territorial".

Section 2(d)(ii) is repealed and the following is

substituted:

(ii) the owner of a supply flock as defined in

section 72 of the

Health of Animals Regulations (Canada) (CRC, c. 296), or

4 This Regulation comes into force on January 31, 2026.

--------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 14/2026

Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

EGG FARMERS OF ALBERTA FEDERAL

AUTHORIZATION AMENDMENT ORDER

Filed: January 16, 2026

For information only: Made by the Alberta Agricultural Products Marketing Council

on December 4, 2025 pursuant to

section 50 of the Marketing of Agricultural

Products Act.

1 The Egg Farmers of Alberta Federal Authorization Order

(AR 27/2014) is amended by this Order.

2 Sections 1(

c) and 2 are amended by striking out "Federal

Provincial" and substituting "Federal-Provincial-Territorial".

3 This Order comes into force on January 31, 2026.

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Alberta Regulation 15/2026

Livestock and Livestock Products Act

HATCHERY SUPPLY FLOCK APPROVAL

REPEAL REGULATION

Filed: January 16, 2026

For information only: Made by the Minister of Agriculture and Irrigation (M.O.

1/2026) on January 13, 2026 pursuant to

section 1 of the Livestock and Livestock

Products Act.

1 The Hatchery Supply Flock Approval Regulation

(AR 183/97) is repealed.

2 This Regulation comes into force on January 31, 2026.

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Alberta Regulation 16/2026

Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

EGG FARMERS OF ALBERTA PLAN

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: January 16, 2026

For information only: Made by the Minister of Agriculture and Irrigation (M.O.

2/2026) on January 13, 2026 pursuant to

section 23 of the Marketing of Agricultural

Products Act.

1 The Egg Farmers of Alberta Plan Regulation (AR 26/2022)

is amended by this Regulation.

Section 1(

h) is amended by striking out

"Federal-Provincial" and substituting

"Federal-Provincial-Territorial".

Section 5 is amended

(

a) by repealing subsection (4) and substituting the

following:

(4) The Board may exempt the owner of a supply flock, as

defined in

section 72 of the Health of Animals Regulations

(Canada) (CRC, c. 296), from regulations made by the Board.

(

b) in subsection (7)(

c) by striking out

"Federal-Provincial" and substituting

"Federal-Provincial-Territorial".

4 This Regulation comes into force on January 31, 2026.