In force date of regulations: As of March 5, 2005*, the date that a regulation comes into force is determined by subsection 3(6) of the Regulations Act. The date that a regulation is filed and any specified effective dates are important in determining when the regulation is in force. *Effective November 28, 2023, subsection 3(6) of the Regulations Act was replaced. (See subsection 3(5) of

Chapter 54 of the Acts of 2022,

An Act to Amend

Chapter 393 of the Revised Statutes, 1989, the Regulations Act.)

Part II – Regulations Volume 50, No. 12 June 12, 2026 Halifax, Nova Scotia Published Under the Authority of the Attorney General Contents Act Reg. No.

Page Dairy Industry Act Total Production Quota Regulations–amendment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 142/2026 304 Hospitals Act Hospitals Regulations–amendment. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 127/2026 259 Liquor Control Act Ferment-on-Premises Regulations–amendment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 129/2026 277 Liquor Licensing Regulations–amendment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 128/2026 260 Petroleum Products Pricing Act Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices (dispensed from publication) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 123/2026 244 Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices (dispensed from publication) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124/2026 244 Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices (dispensed from publication) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141/2026 304 Regulated Health Professions Act Proclamation, S. 241, S.N.S. 2023, c. 15–S. 188 and 222(k) (re repeal of the Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals Act and amendment to the Patient Access to Care Act) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 125/2026 244 Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Regulations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126/2026 246 Special Places Protection Act Diligent River Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands. . . . . . . 138/2026 297 Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . 139/2026 300 Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 137/2026 293

Summary Proceedings Act

Summary Offence Tickets Regulations–amendment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 140/2026 303 Wilderness Areas Protection Act Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . . . . . . . . . 130/2026 279 Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands. . . . . . . . . . . . 131/2026 281 Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . . . 132/2026 283 Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 133/2026 285 Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 134/2026 287 Roseway River Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 135/2026 289 Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 136/2026 291 243

N.S. Reg. 123/2026 - 125/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 123/2026 Made: May 21, 2026 Filed: May 21, 2026 Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices Order dated May 21, 2026 made by the Nova Scotia Energy Board pursuant to

Section 14 of the Petroleum Products Pricing Act and Sections 16 to 19 of the Petroleum Products Pricing Regulations [Please note: Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices filed with the Office of the Registrar of Regulations on and after January 23, 2023, will no longer be published in the Royal Gazette

Part II. Publication of the Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices has been dispensed with by order of the Attorney General dated January 23, 2023, and published on page 63 of the February 10, 2023, issue of the Royal Gazette

Part II. Current and historical Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices are available for inspection in person at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations and can be viewed on the Nova Scotia Energy Board’s website at the following address: https://nserbt.ca/nseb/mandates/gasoline-diesel-pricing.] N.S. Reg. 124/2026 Made: May 22, 2026 Filed: May 22, 2026 Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices Order dated May 22, 2026 made by the Nova Scotia Energy Board pursuant to

Section 14 of the Petroleum Products Pricing Act and Sections 16 to 19 of the Petroleum Products Pricing Regulations [Please note: Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices filed with the Office of the Registrar of Regulations on and after January 23, 2023, will no longer be published in the Royal Gazette

Part II. Publication of the Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices has been dispensed with by order of the Attorney General dated January 23, 2023, and published on page 63 of the February 10, 2023, issue of the Royal Gazette

Part II. Current and historical Prescribed Petroleum Products Prices are available for inspection in person at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations and can be viewed on the Nova Scotia Energy Board’s website at the following address: https://nserbt.ca/nseb/mandates/gasoline-diesel-pricing.] N.S. Reg. 125/2026 Made: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Proclamation, S. 241, S.N.S. 2023, c. 15–S. 188 and 222(k) (re repeal of the Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals Act and amendment to the Patient Access to Care Act) Order in Council 2026-170 dated May 26, 2026 Proclamation made by the Governor in Council pursuant to

Section 241 of the Regulated Health Professions Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Health and Wellness dated April 244

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 27, 2026, pursuant to

Section 241 of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, and subsection 3(7) of

Chapter 235 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the

Interpretation Act, is pleased to order and declare by proclamation that

Section 188 and clause 222(

k) of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, do come into force on and not before June 1, 2026. L.S. Canada Province of Nova Scotia Charles the Third, by the Grace of God King of Canada and His Other Realms and Territories, Head of the Commonwealth. To all to whom these presents shall come, or whom the same may in any wise concern, Greeting! A Proclamation

Whereas in and by

Section 241 of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, it is enacted as follows: 241 Sections 178 to 240 come into force on such day as the Governor in Council orders and declares by proclamation. And

Whereas it is deemed expedient that

Section 188 and clause 222(

k) of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, do come into force on and not before June 1, 2026; Now Know Ye That We, by and with the advice of the Executive Council of Nova Scotia, do by this Our Proclamation order and declare that

Section 188 and clause 222(

k) of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, do come into force on and not before June 1, 2026, of which all persons concerned are to take notice and govern themselves accordingly. In Testimony Whereof We have caused these our Letters to be made Patent and the Great Seal of Nova Scotia to be hereunto affixed. Witness, Our Trusty and Well Beloved, Michael John Savage, Chancellor of Our Order of Nova Scotia, Lieutenant Governor in and of Our Province of Nova Scotia.

Given at Our Government House in the Halifax Regional Municipality, this 26th day of May in the year of Our Lord two thousand and twenty-six and in the Fourth year of Our Reign. By Command: PROVINCIAL SECRETARY ATTORNEY GENERAL AND MINISTER OF JUSTICE 245

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 126/2026 Made: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Regulations Order in Council 2026-171 dated May 26, 2026 Regulations made by the Governor in Council pursuant to Sections 4, 13 and 14 of the Regulated Health Professions Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Health and Wellness dated April 22, 2026, and pursuant to Sections 4, 13 and 14 of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act, is pleased to make new regulations respecting medical imaging and radiation therapy, in the form set forth in

Schedule “A” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation, effective on and after June 1, 2026.

Schedule “A” Regulations Respecting Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy made by the Governor in Council under Sections 4, 13 and 14 of

Chapter 15 of the Acts of 2023, the Regulated Health Professions Act

Interpretation Citation 1 These regulations may be cited as the Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Regulations.

Definitions 2 In these regulations, “Act” means the Regulated Health Professions Act; “Board” is further defined to mean the board of the Regulator; “competency framework” means a framework approved by the Board establishing the competencies that registrants are required to possess to practise safely and ethically within the scope of practice of their designation or licensing category; “former Act” is further defined to mean

Chapter 7 of the Acts of 2013, the Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals Act; “General Regulations” means the Regulated Health Professions General Regulations made under the Act; “Nova Scotia College of Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals” means the college continued under

Section 3 of the former Act; “registration and licensing decision maker” means the registrar, the registration and licensing committee or the registration and licensing review committee, as applicable; “Regulator” means the Nova Scotia Regulator of Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy; 246

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 “ROSE Clinic” means 1 of the following: (

i) the health services clinic that (

A) is known as the “ROSE Clinic”, (

B) is located in the Province, (

C) provides reproductive options and services, and (

D) is operated by a health authority as defined in the Health Authorities Act, (ii) the clinic that succeeds the clinic described in subclause (i); “title protection” means the restriction on the use of a title associated with a particular designation or category of licence to persons who are authorized to practise within the scope of that designation or registered and licensed in that category of licence.

Regulator Nova Scotia College of Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals continued 3 The Nova Scotia College of Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy Professionals is continued as a regulatory body under the name Nova Scotia Regulator of Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy with the purpose of regulating the profession of medical imaging and radiation therapy in accordance with the objects set out in

Section 6 of the Act. Bylaw authorization 4 The Regulator is authorized to make bylaws under clauses 12(2)(d), (j), (k), (

l) and (

m) of the Act, in accordance with the Act and these regulations. Public representatives on Board 5 In addition to the requirement of subsection 7(2) of the Act, the number of public representatives on the Board must be no fewer than 3 and no more than 4. Scope of Practice Scope of practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy 6

(1) The scope of practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy is the application of specialized and evidence-based medical imaging and radiation therapy knowledge, skills and judgment that have been taught in an approved education program or are set out in 1 or more of the following approved by the Board: (

a) competency frameworks; (

b) standards of practice; (

c) practice guidelines.

(2) The scope of practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy as described in subsection (1) includes the performance of any or all of the following activities: (

a) applying medical imaging and radiation therapy knowledge to assess, treat and manage diseases, disorders and conditions; 247

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (

b) planning and performing medical imaging and radiation therapy procedures that use prescribed forms of energy; (

c) evaluating and interpreting medical imaging and radiation therapy procedure results; (

d) evaluating the accuracy, reliability and safety of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures through the application of quality management standards; (

e) performing any other services, roles, functions and activities included in the scope of practice of the designations and licensing categories set out in the bylaws.

(3) The scope of practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy also includes health promotion, research, education, inter-professional collaboration, consultation, management, administration, advocacy, regulation or system development that is related to the activities and application of specialized and evidence-based medical imaging and radiation therapy knowledge, skills and judgment described in subsections (1) and (2). Scope of practice of designations and licensing categories 7 Under clauses 12(2)(

k) and (

l) of the Act, the Regulator may make bylaws setting out all of the following: (

a) the scope of practice of each designation and licensing category established (

i) in these regulations, and (ii) in the bylaws; (

b) the title protection authorized for each designation and licensing category established in the bylaws. Registration and Licensing Practising licence categories 8 The following are the practising licence categories for medical imaging and radiation therapy: (

a) diagnostic medical sonographer (general) practising licence; (

b) diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) practising licence; (

c) diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) practising licence; (

d) magnetic resonance technologist practising licence; (

e) nuclear medicine technologist practising licence; (

f) radiological technologist practising licence; (

g) radiation therapist practising licence; (

h) any other category of practising licence established in the bylaws. Conditional licence categories 9 The following are the conditional licence categories for medical imaging and radiation therapy: 248

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (

a) diagnostic medical sonographer (general) conditional licence; (

b) diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) conditional licence; (

c) diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) conditional licence; (

d) magnetic resonance technologist conditional licence; (

e) nuclear medicine technologist conditional licence; (

f) radiological technologist conditional licence; (

g) radiation therapist conditional licence; (

h) any other category of conditional licence established in the bylaws. Application and criteria for registration in practising register 10

(1) An application required by

Section 34 of the Act must be completed in the form required by the registrar.

(2) In addition to the completed application, an applicant for registration in a practising register must submit all of the following to the registrar: (

a) proof satisfactory to the registration and licensing decision maker that the applicant meets all of the following criteria, except if any or all of the criteria are waived under

Section 59 of the Act: (

i) they are a graduate of 1 of the following: (

A) an education program approved for registration in the practising register in which they seek to be registered, (

B) an education program that, in the opinion of the registration and licensing decision maker, is equivalent to an education program approved for registration in the practising register in which they seek to be registered, (

C) an education program that, together with the applicant’s additional education and experience and in the opinion of the registration and licensing decision maker, provides the applicant with the competencies to practise in the scope of practice of registrants in the practising register in which they seek to be registered, (ii) they have successfully completed any examinations required by the Board for registration in the practising register in which they seek to be registered, (iii) they have completed a competence assessment, if directed to do so by the registration and licensing decision maker, (iv) they have successfully completed any bridging education required for registration that was determined to be necessary by a competence assessment, (

v) they have demonstrated proficiency in the English language, in the manner prescribed by the registrar, 249

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (vi) they are a Canadian citizen or legally entitled to live and work in Canada, (vii) they have the capacity, competence and character to safely and ethically engage in the practice of the profession in which they seek to be registered without conditions or restrictions, (viii) they have no outstanding complaints, prohibitions, conditions, agreements or restrictions originating from the Regulator or any other registration or licensing authority that would preclude registration in a register other than a conditional register, (ix) they are the person named in the documentation submitted in support of the application, (

x) under the requirements of the Act, these regulations and the bylaws, they are eligible for a practising licence that corresponds with the practising register in which they seek to be registered, (xi) they meet any additional criteria for registration in a practising register set out in the bylaws; (

b) the applicable fee, within the time determined by the registrar and using a method acceptable to the registrar.

(3) The processing under

Section 36 of the Act of an application and its associated information, documents and fee described in subsections (1) and (2) must be completed by the registrar as soon as practicable.

(4) A review and decision under Sections 37 and 38 of the Act regarding an application must be completed by the registration and licensing committee as soon as practicable. Criteria for practising licence 11

(1) In addition to the completed application in a form approved by the registrar required by

Section 35 of the Act, an applicant for a practising licence must submit all of the following to the registrar: (

a) proof satisfactory to the registration and licensing decision maker that the applicant meets all of the following criteria, except if any or all of the criteria are waived under

Section 59 of the Act: (

i) they meet the registration criteria in subclauses 10(2)(a)(iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii) and (ix), (ii) they are registered in the practising register that corresponds with the licensing category for which they are seeking a practising licence, (iii) they have professional liability insurance or another form of malpractice coverage or liability protection in the form and amount set by the Board, (iv) they meet the requirements of the continuing competence program for the licensing category for which they are seeking a practising licence, (

v) they meet the currency of practice requirements for the licensing category for which they are seeking a practising licence, (vi) they have no outstanding complaints, prohibitions, conditions, agreements or restrictions originating from the Regulator or any other registration or licensing 250

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 authority that limit their ability to practise, (vii) they have completed any assessments or education required by the Board for the licensing category for which they are seeking a practising licence, (viii) they meet any additional criteria for issuing a practising licence set out in the bylaws; (

b) the applicable fee, within the time determined by the registrar and using a method acceptable to the registrar.

(2) The processing under

Section 36 of the Act of an application and associated information, documents and fee described in subsection (1) must be completed by the registrar as soon as practicable.

(3) A review and decision under Sections 37 and 38 of the Act regarding an application must be completed by the registration and licensing committee as soon as practicable. Criteria for registration in conditional register 12

(1) The registrar must enter the name of a person who meets all of the following in a conditional register: (

a) for an existing registrant in a practising register, they have (

i) agreed to conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise, or (ii) had conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise imposed on them as a result of a regulatory process; (

b) for an applicant for registration in a register, they meet all of the following requirements: (

i) all of the criteria for registration in a practising register, other than the criteria in subclauses 10(2)(a)(vii), (viii), (

x) and (xi), and except as provided in subsection (4), (ii) they have the capacity, competence and character to safely and ethically engage in the practice of the profession in which they seek to be registered with conditions or restrictions, (iii) they have either (

A) agreed to conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise, or (

B) had conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise imposed on them as a result of a regulatory process, (iv) under the requirements of the Act, these regulations and the bylaws, they are eligible for a conditional licence that corresponds with the conditional register in which they seek to be registered, (

v) any other requirements for registration in a conditional register set out in the bylaws, (vi) they have paid the applicable fee, within the time determined by the registrar and using a method acceptable to the registrar.

(2) The processing of an application under

Section 36 of the Act for an applicant described in clause 251

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (1)(

b) must be completed by the registrar as soon as practicable.

(3) A review and decision under Sections 37 and 38 of the Act regarding an application made by an applicant described in clause (1)(

b) must be completed by the registration and licensing committee as soon as practicable.

(4) An applicant who has not passed the examinations required for registration, but who otherwise meets the requirements of subsection 13(1), may be granted conditional registration by the registration and licensing decision maker pending the passing of the registration examinations. Criteria for conditional licence 13

(1) The requirements to be met for issuing a conditional licence under

Section 43 of the Act are as follows: (

a) for a person who is an existing registrant holding a practising licence, they have (

i) agreed to conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise, or (ii) had conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise imposed on them as a result of a regulatory process; (

b) for an applicant for a licence, they meet all of the following requirements: (

i) all of the criteria for registration in a practising register, other than the criteria in subclauses 10(2)(a)(vii), (viii), (

x) and (xi), and except as provided in subsection (4), (ii) they are registered in a conditional register that corresponds with the licensing category for which they are seeking a conditional licence, (iii) the requirements for a practising licence in subclauses 11(1)(a)(iii) and (vii), (iv) they have the capacity, competence and character to safely and ethically engage in the practice of the profession in which they seek to be licensed with conditions or restrictions, (

v) any additional criteria for issuing a conditional licence set out in the bylaws, (vi) they have either (

A) agreed to the registration and licensing decision maker’s imposition of conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise, or (

B) had conditions or restrictions that limit their ability to practise imposed by the registration and licensing decision maker or a statutory committee; (

c) for all applicants, they have paid the applicable fee, within the time determined by the registrar and using a method acceptable to the registrar.

(2) The processing of an application under

Section 36 of the Act for an applicant described in clause (1)(

b) must be completed by the registrar as soon as practicable.

(3) A review and decision under Sections 37 and 38 of the Act regarding an application made by an applicant described in clause (1)(

b) must be completed by the registration and licensing committee 252

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 as soon as practicable.

(4) An applicant who has not passed the examinations required for registration, but who otherwise meets the requirements of subsection (1), may be issued a conditional licence by the registration and licensing decision maker pending the passing of the registration examinations. Practice and Title Use Restrictions, Services Not Prohibited and Publication Restrictions Restriction on practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy 14 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy or describe their activities as “medical imaging” or “radiation therapy” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) conditional licence; (

b) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) conditional licence; (

c) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) conditional licence; (

d) a registrant holding a magnetic resonance technologist practising licence or a magnetic resonance technologist conditional licence; (

e) a registrant holding a nuclear medicine technologist practising licence or a nuclear medicine technologist conditional licence; (

f) a registrant holding a radiological technologist practising licence or a radiological technologist conditional licence; (

g) a registrant holding a radiation therapist practising licence or a radiation therapist conditional licence; (

h) otherwise authorized to practise medical imaging and radiation therapy, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; (

i) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on practice of diagnostic medical sonography 15 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of diagnostic medical sonography or describe their activities as “diagnostic medical sonography” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) conditional licence; (

b) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) conditional licence; (

c) a registrant holding a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) conditional licence; (

d) otherwise authorized to practise diagnostic medical sonography, in accordance with the Act, 253

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; (

e) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on practice of magnetic resonance technology 16 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of magnetic resonance technology or describe their activities as “magnetic resonance technology” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a magnetic resonance technologist practising licence or a magnetic resonance technologist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise magnetic resonance technology, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; (

c) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on practice of nuclear medicine technology 17 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of nuclear medicine technology or describe their activities as “nuclear medicine technology” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a nuclear medicine technologist practising licence or a nuclear medicine technologist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise nuclear medicine technology, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; (

c) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on practice of radiological technology 18 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of radiological technology or describe their activities as “radiological technology” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a radiological technologist practising licence or a radiological technologist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise radiological technology, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; (

c) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on practice of radiation therapy 19 No person may engage or offer to engage in the practice of radiation therapy or describe their activities as “radiation therapy” unless they are 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding a radiation therapist practising licence or a radiation therapist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise radiation therapy, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws; 254

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (

c) exempt from the application of the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “medical radiation technologist” title, description or designation 20 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “medical radiation technologist”, the abbreviation “MRT” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a magnetic resonance technologist practising licence, a nuclear medicine technologist practising licence, a radiological technologist practising licence or a radiation therapist practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a magnetic resonance technologist conditional licence, a nuclear medicine technologist conditional licence, a radiological technologist conditional licence or a radiation therapist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a medical radiation technologist or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “diagnostic medical sonographer” title, description or designation 21 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “diagnostic medical sonographer”, “diagnostic ultrasound technologist” or “sonographer”, the abbreviation “DMS” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) practising licence, a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) practising licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a diagnostic medical sonographer (general) conditional licence, a diagnostic medical sonographer (cardiac) conditional licence or a diagnostic medical sonographer (vascular) conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a diagnostic medical sonographer or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “magnetic resonance technologist” title, description or designation 22 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “magnetic resonance technologist” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a magnetic resonance technologist practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a magnetic resonance technologist conditional licence; 255

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a magnetic resonance technologist or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “nuclear medicine technologist” title, description or designation 23 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “nuclear medicine technologist” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a nuclear medicine technologist practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a nuclear medicine technologist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a nuclear medicine technologist or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “radiological technologist” title, description or designation 24 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “radiological technologist” or “x-ray technologist” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a radiological technologist practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a radiological technologist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a radiological technologist or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of “radiation therapist” title, description or designation 25 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of “radiation therapist” or any derivation or abbreviation of them either alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions unless the person is 1 of the following: (

a) a registrant holding 1 of the following under these regulations or the bylaws: (

i) a radiation therapist practising licence, as permitted by clause 40(

a) of the Act, (ii) a radiation therapist conditional licence; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise as a radiation therapist or to use the relevant title, description or designation in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Restriction on use of bylaw licensing category title, description or designation 26 No person may take or use the title, description or designation of a licensing category established in the bylaws under clause 12(2)(

l) of the Act, unless the person is 1 of the following: 256

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a) a registrant holding a licence in the category that authorizes the use of that title, description or designation; (

b) otherwise authorized to practise within the scope of the designation or to use the title, description or designation of that licensing category, in accordance with the Act, these regulations, the General Regulations or the bylaws. Services not prohibited by Act, regulations or bylaws 27 In addition to the services set out in

Section 164 of the Act, nothing in the Act, these regulations or the bylaws prohibits the practice of diagnostic medical sonography by a registered nurse licensed by the Nova Scotia regulatory body for nursing who meets all of the following requirements: (

a) they are 1 of the following: (

i) a person employed to perform diagnostic medical sonography limited to pediatric echocardiology at the Izaak Walton Killam Health Centre and certified in pediatric echocardiology by the American Registry for Diagnostic Medical Sonographers, (ii) a person (

A) employed at the Izaak Walton Killam Health Centre, and (

B) engaged in learning pediatric echocardiology (

I) under the supervision of a person authorized to engage in the practice of pediatric echocardiology, and (II) as part of the American Registry for Diagnostic Medical Sonographers’ certification process for pediatric echocardiology, (iii) a person who (

A) was employed to perform diagnostic medical sonography limited to pediatric echocardiology at the Izaak Walton Killam Health Centre immediately before the effective date of these regulations, and (

B) continues to be employed to perform diagnostic medical sonography limited to pediatric echocardiology at the Izaak Walton Killam Health Centre on and after the effective date of these regulations, (iv) a person employed at the ROSE Clinic to perform fetal dating sonography who has successfully completed or is in the process of completing all of the following related to fetal dating sonography, as approved by the Board: (

A) education and clinical requirements, (

B) clinical competency assessments, (

C) any other required examinations or assessments; (

b) they meet all of the following requirements: (

i) have professional liability insurance or another form of malpractice coverage or liability 257

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 protection in the form and amount set by the Nova Scotia regulatory body for nursing, (ii) have no outstanding complaints, prohibitions, conditions or restrictions originating from any registration or licensing authority that would preclude them, in the opinion of the Nova Scotia regulatory body for nursing, from engaging in pediatric echocardiology or fetal dating sonography, (iii) any other requirements the Nova Scotia regulatory body for nursing determines to be necessary.

Restriction on use of title or designation in advertisement or publication 28 In any advertisement or publication, including business cards, websites and signage, that refers to activities that fall within the scope of practice of medical imaging and radiation therapy, the following restrictions apply: (

a) only a person who is authorized to do so by these regulations may use the following alone or in combination with other words, letters or descriptions: (

i) the title of “medical radiation technologist”, “diagnostic medical sonographer”, “magnetic resonance technologist”, “nuclear medicine technologist”, “radiological technologist” or “radiation therapist” or any other title or designation protected by these regulations or the bylaws, (ii) any derivation or abbreviation of the titles or designations described in subclause (i); (

b) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 14 may describe their activities as “medical imaging and radiation therapy”; (

c) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 15 may describe their activities as “diagnostic medical sonography”; (

d) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 16 may describe their activities as “magnetic resonance technology”; (

e) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 17 may describe their activities as “nuclear medicine technology”; (

f) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 18 may describe their activities as “radiological technology”; (

g) only a person who is authorized to do so under

Section 19 may describe their activities as “radiation therapy”. Fines Professional conduct fine maximum 29 A fine imposed by the professional conduct committee under clause 110(1)(

m) of the Act must not exceed a maximum amount of $50 000. 258

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 127/2026 Made: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Hospitals Regulations–amendment Order in Council 2026-172 dated May 26, 2026 Amendment to regulations made by the Governor in Council pursuant to

Section 17 of the Hospitals Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Health and Wellness dated April 13, 2026, and pursuant to clauses 4(1)(

a) and 17(

b) of

Chapter 208 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Hospitals Act, is pleased, effective on and after May 26, 2026, to (

a) approve operating room facilities operated by the Dalhousie Faculty of Medicine at 5849 University Avenue, Halifax, as a hospital, from May 26, 2026, to March 31, 2028, inclusive; and (

b) amend the Hospitals Regulations, N.S. Reg. 53/2015, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-77 dated March 24, 2015, to add operating room facilities operated by the Dalhousie Faculty of Medicine to the list of approved hospitals, from May 26, 2026, to March 31, 2028, inclusive, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “A” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation.

Schedule “A” Amendment to the Hospitals Regulations made by the Governor in Council under

Section 17 of

Chapter 208 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Hospitals Act The Hospitals Regulations, N.S. Reg. 53/2015, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-77 dated March 24, 2015, are amended by adding the following row to the table in

Schedule A— Approved Hospitals: Operating room facilities operated by the Dalhousie Faculty of Medicine, from May 26, 2026, to March 31, 2028, inclusive. 5849 University Avenue, Halifax 259

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 128/2026 and 129/2026 Made: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Liquor Licensing Regulations–amendment; Ferment-on-Premises Regulations–amendment Order in Council 2026-173 dated May 26, 2026 Amendment to regulations made by the Governor in Council pursuant to

Section 50 of the Liquor Control Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Service Nova Scotia and the Minister of Finance and Treasury Board dated May 12, 2026, and pursuant to

Section 50 of

Chapter 260 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Liquor Control Act, is pleased, effective on and after June 1, 2026, to (

a) amend the Liquor Licensing Regulations, N.S. Reg. 365/2007, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2007-445 dated August 17, 2007, to introduce bar safety measures, reduce administrative burden for liquor licensees and introduce a system of administrative penalties, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “A” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; and (

b) amend the Ferment-on-Premises Regulations, N.S. Reg. 164/2014, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2014-441 dated October 28, 2014, to introduce a system of administrative penalties and to make administrative amendments, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “B” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation. N.S. Reg. 128/2026 Liquor Licensing Regulations–amendment

Schedule “A” Amendment to the Liquor Licensing Regulations made by the Governor in Council under

Section 50 of

Chapter 260 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Liquor Control Act 1

Section 2 of the Liquor Licensing Regulations, N.S. Reg. 365/2007, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2007-445 dated August 17, 2007, is amended by (

a) striking out the clause letter before each definition; and (

b) adding the following definition immediately after the definition of “cider”: “clean criminal record”, in relation to an individual, means (

i) the individual has not been charged or convicted of any of the following: (

A) an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada), (

B) an offence under the Controlled Drugs and Substance[s] Act (Canada), (ii) the individual has been convicted of an offence or offences referred to in subclause (i) 260

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 and a pardon or record suspension under the Criminal Records Act (Canada) or other applicable Act has been issued or granted for each offence; (

c) adding the following definition immediately after the definition of “fire official”: “infused”, in relation to liquor, means that ingredients have been added to the liquor, such as spices, herbs, fruit, vegetables, candy, flavouring agents or other substances for human consumption; 2

Section 8A of the regulations is repealed and the following

Section substituted: Permanent licensee’s proof of employee completion of programs 8A

(1) For greater certainty, the records that the Executive Director may request under subsection 48(3B) of the Act includes records from a permanent licensee confirming that all of the following have completed a responsible alcohol service program approved by the Executive Director: (

a) persons who have served or will serve liquor at the licensed premises; (

b) security employees at the licensed premises.

(2) For greater certainty, the records that the Executive Director may request under subsection 48(3B) of the Act includes records from a permanent licensee confirming that all security employees at the licensed premises have (

a) completed a security training program approved by [the] Executive Director; and (

b) provided a report on the results of a criminal background check showing a clean criminal record. 3

Section 14 of the regulations is repealed [and] the following

Section substituted: 14 A special premises license may be granted, renewed or transferred by the Executive Director only to an applicant that, in the opinion of the Executive Director, proposes to carry on business in a manner that requires a special premises license. 4

Section 35A of the regulations is repealed [and] the following

Section substituted: 35A If a permit is granted under the Nova Scotia Liquor Corporation Regulations made under the Act for all or part of a premises that is the subject of a permanent license, the licensee must post the permit in the premises while the permit is in effect. 5

Section 37C of the regulations is repealed [and] the following

Section substituted: Special occasion licensee’s proof of employee completion of programs 37C

(1) For greater certainty, the records that the Executive Director may request under subsection 48(3B) of the Act includes records from a special occasion licensee confirming that all of the following have completed a responsible alcohol service program that is approved by the Executive Director: (

a) person[s] who has [have] served or will serve liquor at the licensed premises; (

b) security employees at the licensed premises. 261

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(2) For greater certainty, the records that the Executive Director may request under subsection 48(3B) of the Act includes records from a special occasion licensee confirming that all security employees at the licensed premises have (

a) completed a security training program approved by the Executive Director; and (

b) provided a report on the results of a criminal background check showing a clean criminal record. 6

(1) The heading immediately before

Section 43J [of the regulations] is amended by striking out “81A to 83” in and substituting “88 to 95”.

(2) Section 43J of the regulations is amended by (

a) striking out “81A to 83” in subsection (1) and substituting “88 to 95”; (

b) striking out “81B(1)” in clause [(1)](

c) and substituting “89(1)”; (

c) striking out “82A(6)(a)” in clause [(1)](

d) and substituting “93(6)(a)”; and (

d) striking out “83(2)” in subsection (2) and substituting “95(2)”. 7

Section 46 of the regulations is repealed and the following

Section substituted: Persons under 19 providing entertainment 46

(1) Except as prohibited in

Section 47, a person who is under 19 years old may enter and be in premises for which a beverage room license, lounge license or class A cabaret license is in effect if all of the following conditions are met: (

a) the person is employed or otherwise authorized by the licensee of the premises to provide entertainment on the premises; (

b) the person’s presence on the licensed premises does not violate any order of a competent authority or any terms and conditions of the licensee’s licence; (

c) the person is accompanied, at all times, by 1 of the following persons who will be responsible for them: (

i) their parent, (ii) their legal guardian, (iii) a person over 19 years of age who is designated in writing by their parent or legal guardian.

(2) A licensee must keep records about each person under 19 years old who provides entertainment in the licensed premises, including all of the following: (

a) the person’s name; (

b) all dates that they provide entertainment in their premises; (

c) the names of all persons accompanying them under clause (1)(c). 262

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(3) A licensee must provide any records kept under subsection (2) to the Executive Director or an inspector upon request. 8

Section 48 of the regulations is repealed [and] the following

Section substituted: 48

(1) A licensee must ensure that liquor is not dispensed by an employee who is under 19 years old.

(2) An eating establishment licensee or a lounge licensee may permit an employee who is under 19 years old to serve liquor at a customer’s table. 9 (1) Subsection 52(2) of the regulations is repealed and the following subsection substituted:

(2) A licensee must ensure that liquor sold in their licensed premises is not diluted, other than the following: (

a) liquor in drinks that are mixed or diluted at the request of the customer; (

b) liquor that has been infused in accordance with subsection (2) [52(3)].

(2) Section 52 of the regulations is further amended by adding the following subsection immediately after subsection 52(2):

(3) A licensee must ensure that any liquor that has been infused and is for sale in their licensed establishment meets all of the following requirements: (

a) the infusion does not cause additional fermentation resulting in an increase in the amount of alcohol in the drink; (

b) the drink’s ingredients, including the infusion, are identified on the drink menu or price list; (

c) cannabis is not used in the infusion; (

d) infusions involving perishable ingredients such as fruit, juices or other consumable food items are stored in a manner consistent with provincial and municipal health and safety standards; (

e) each bottle, package or container used for infusing liquor is clearly labelled with all of the following information: (

i) the date the infusion was prepared or the date the infusion agent was placed in the container, (ii) the type, brand and quantity of liquor used, (iii) the non-liquor ingredients used, (iv) the name of the person who prepared the liquor for infusing; (

f) the infusion occurs at the licensed premises. 10

Section 58B of the regulations is amended by striking out a “With the approval of the Executive Director, a” and substituting “A”. 263

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 11 Subsection 58C(2) of the regulations is amended by striking out a “With the approval of the Executive Director, a” and substituting “A”. 12 Subsection 58D(1) of the regulations is amended by striking out a “With the approval of the Executive Director, a” and substituting “A”. 13 (1) Subsection 64(5) of the regulations is amended by adding “game or” immediately before “contest”.

(2) Section 64 of the regulations is further amended by adding the following subsections immediately after subsection (6):

(7) A licensee must not permit any activity in the licensed premises that may be injurious to the health or safety of people in the premises.

(8) A licensee must not permit any activity that contravenes a federal or provincial enactment or a municipal by-law to take place in the licensed premises.

(9) A licensee must not permit disorderly persons to be in the licensed premises or in the immediate vicinity outside of the licensed premises. 14 The regulations are amended by adding the following

Section immediately after

Section 64: Removal of patrons from licensed premises 64A

(1) A licensee may request that a person leave the licensed premises or request that a person stop trying to enter the licensed premises if the person meets any of the following criteria: (

a) they are intoxicated; (

b) they are prohibited from entering the licensed premises; (

c) they have engaged in any unlawful activity or disorderly conduct in the licensed premises or in the immediate vicinity of the licensed premises.

(2) A licensee must ensure or arrange for intoxicated patrons to be safely removed from the licensed premises. 15

Section 66A of the regulations is amended by striking out “has completed” and substituting “and all security employees have completed”. 16

Section 66B of the regulations, and its heading, are repealed and replaced with the following heading and Section: Requirements for special occasion licensees— service and security employees 66B

(1) In any of the circumstances listed in subsection (2), the Executive Director may require a special occasion licensee to ensure that employees at their licensed premises meet the following requirements: (

a) for persons who serve liquor and security employees, they have completed a responsible alcohol service program approved by the Executive Director; (

b) for security employees, they meet all of the following: (

i) they have completed a security training program approved by the Executive 264

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Director, (ii) they have provided a report on the results of a criminal record check showing a clean criminal record, unless the requirement is waived in accordance with subsection (3), (iii) they are able to perform the duties of a security employee in a manner that will not compromise public safety.

(2) The following are the circumstances under which the Executive Director may require compliance with subsection (1): (a) 500 or more attendees are expected at the event that the license has been issued for; (

b) the event that the license has been issued for is expected to end after 12:00 a.m.; (

c) the special occasion licensee is a commercial enterprise and live entertainment is advertised as the primary attraction at the event that the license has been issued for; (

d) in the opinion of the Executive Director, it is necessary to ensure public safety; (

e) in the opinion of the Executive Director, it is necessary for the special occasion licensee to ensure care and control of the licensed premises.

(3) The Executive Director may waive the requirement for a clean criminal record check in subclause (1)(b)(ii) if, in the opinion of the Executive Director, the offences listed on the criminal record check will not affect the security employee’s performance of their duties or compromise public safety.

(4) A special occasion licensee must ensure that all security employees wear clothing that clearly identifies them as a security employee of the licensee while performing their duties. 17 The regulations are amended by adding the following

Section immediately after

Section 66B: Requirements for permanent licensees— security employees 66C

(1) A permanent licensee must ensure that all security employees at their licensed premises meet all [of] the following requirements: (

a) they have completed a security training program approved by the Executive Director; (

b) they have provided a report on the results of a criminal record check showing a clean criminal record, unless the requirement is waived in accordance with subsection (2); (

c) they are able to perform the duties of a security employee in a manner that will not compromise public safety; (

d) they wear clothing that clearly identifies them as a security employee of the licensee while performing their duties.

(2) The Executive Director may waive the requirement for a clean criminal record check in clause (1)(

b) if, in the opinion of the Executive Director, the offences listed on the criminal record check will not affect the security employee’s performance of their duties or compromise public safety. 265

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(3) For greater certainty, the records that the Executive Director may request under subsection 48(3B) of the Act includes to an updated report from a permanent licensee on the results of a criminal record check of any security employee showing a clean criminal record.

(4) The Executive Director may prohibit a permanent licensee from employing a person as a security employee if, in the opinion of the Executive Director, the person has engaged in conduct or behaviour that will likely affect the person’s ability to perform the duties of a security employee or compromise public safety, as required by clause (1)(c). 18 Clause 68(4)(

e) of the regulations is amended by striking out “81C” and substituting “90”. 19 The regulations are amended by repealing

Section 73 and substituting the following Section: Duty to notify Executive Director 73

(1) A licensee must notify the Executive Director of any first responder presence at their licensed premises in relation to an incident involving a patron in or about their licensed premises no later than 10 days after the incident, and must provide details of the incident.

(2) A licensee must notify the Executive Director of any allegation of the use of excessive force by a security employee involving a patron in or about their licensed premises no later than 10 days after the allegation and must provide details of the incident giving rise to the allegation.

(3) A licensee must notify the Executive Director of any police charge laid in relation to an incident in or about their licensed premises or in relation to an activity occurring in or about their licensed premises no later than 10 days after the date the charge is laid, and must provide details of the incident or activity that is the subject of the charge.

(4) A licensee must notify the Executive Director if the licensee has information indicating that a security employee of the licensee has been convicted of an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada), or the Controlled Drugs and Substance[s] Act (Canada), after the date of the criminal record check for the security employee, provided to the licensee under clause 66C(1)(b).

(5) A licensee must notify the Executive Director if the licensee has information indicating that a security employee of the licensee has been charged with a criminal offence or engaged in conduct or behaviour that may affect the security employee’s performance of their duties no later than 10 days after the licensee discovers such information. 20 (1) Clause 75(1)(

d) of the regulations is amended by (

a) striking out the semicolon at the end of subclause (vii) and substituting a comma; and (

b) adding the following subclauses immediately after clause (vii): (viii) confirmation that a security employee has completed a security training program that is approved by the Executive Director, (ix) all records relating to the results of criminal record checks for security employees; (2) Subsection 75(1) of the regulations is further amended by (

a) striking out the period at the end of clause (

f) and substituting a semicolon; and 266

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b) adding the following clauses immediately after clause (f): (

g) all records relating to infusing liquor under subsection 52(3)[;] (

h) all records relating to any person under 19 years old that is providing or has provided entertainment on the licenses [licensed] premises under

Section 46; (

i) all records relating to the presence of any first responder on the licenses [licensed] premises under subsection 73(1); (

j) all records relating to an allegation of [the] use of excessive force by a security employee under subsection 73(2). 21 Clause 78(2)(

b) of the regulations is amended by adding “video surveillance footage,” immediately before “books of account”. 22 The regulations are further amended by repealing Sections 81A to 87 and adding the following Sections immediately after

Section 81: Administrative Penalties Executive Director may impose administrative penalty 82

(1) The Executive Director may impose an administrative penalty on a permanent licensee who does any of the following by serving a notice of administrative penalty on the permanent licensee: (

a) contravenes a provision of the Act or these regulations; (

b) fails to comply with a term or condition of a license.

(2) Each contravention or failure to comply under clause (1)(

a) or (

b) may be the subject of a separate administrative penalty.

(3) A notice of administrative penalty served on a permanent licensee under this

Section must be in writing and contain all of the following information: (

a) the name of the permanent licensee on whom the administrative penalty is imposed; (

b) the provision of the Act or these regulations, or license condition that was contravened and resulted in the administrative penalty; (

c) the details of the contravention of the Act or these regulations or license condition that resulted in the administrative penalty; (

d) the amount of the administrative penalty; (

e) when and how the administrative penalty must be paid; (

f) the process for filing an appeal of the administrative penalty.

(4) The Executive Director may require a licensee to post a notice at the licensed premises stating that an administrative penalty has been imposed for the premises and giving the reason for the administrative penalty. 267

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Serving notice of administrative penalty 83

(1) A notice of administrative penalty is deemed to have been served on a permanent licensee if any of the following have been performed: (

a) it has been delivered personally to the permanent licensee; (

b) it has been sent by courier or registered mail to any of the following: (

i) the permanent licensee’s licensed premises; (ii) the permanent licensee’s last known business address, (iii) the permanent licensee’s usual place of residence; (

c) it has been sent by electronic means to the permanent licensee’s last known business e- mail address.

(2) A notice of administrative penalty is deemed to have been served on the following dates: (

a) for a notice sent by electronic means, the date it is transmitted; (

b) for a notice sent by courier, the date it is delivered to the courier; (

c) for a notice sent by registered mail, the date it is mailed.

(3) A notice of administrative penalty must be served no later than 2 years from the date of contravention or failure to comply under clauses (1)(

a) or (

b) for which the administrative penalty is imposed. Amount of administrative penalty 84

(1) The amount of an administrative penalty imposed is at the discretion of the Executive Director, but must be within the following ranges and subject to the considerations in subsection (2): (

a) for a first offence, between $500 and $3000; (

b) for a second offence, between $1000 and $7000; (

c) for a third or subsequent offence, between $2000 and $10 000.

(2) All of the following are the considerations for setting an administrative penalty: (

a) the severity of the contravention or failure to comply; (

b) the degree of wilfulness or negligence exhibited by the licensee in relation to the contravention; (

c) any mitigating actions taken by the licensee relating to the contravention; (

d) whether steps were taken to prevent reoccurrence after the contravention; (

e) the licensee’s history of contravening the Act or regulations; 268

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f) the licensee’s history of failing to comply with terms or conditions on [of] a license; (

g) whether the licensee received a financial benefit because of the contravention or failure to comply; (

h) any additional factors the Executive Director considers relevant in determining the administrative penalty amount.

(3) If a notice of administrative penalty for a contravention or failure to comply is served 3 or more years after the date that any previous notice of administrative penalty was served on a licensee, the contravention or failure to comply is considered to be a first offence under subsection (1). Agreement instead of administrative penalty 85

(1) The Executive Director may revoke or reduce an administrative penalty imposed on a permanent licensee and enter into an agreement with the permanent licensee instead.

(2) An agreement made under subsection (1) is subject to any terms and conditions the Executive Director considers necessary and must specify when the terms and conditions must be met.

(3) A permanent licensee who fails to meet any terms and conditions that are part of an agreement under this

Section by the specified date must pay the original administrative penalty that was imposed. Payment of administrative penalty 86 A permanent licensee who is served a notice of administrative penalty must pay the administrative penalty (

a) no later than 60 days after the date the notice of administrative penalty is served; or (

b) for a permanent licensee who fails to meet any terms and conditions that are part of an agreement under

Section 85 by the specified date, immediately on that date. Failure to pay administrative penalty 87 An administrative penalty that is not paid by the deadline in

Section 86 is a debt due to the Crown in right of the Province. Disciplinary Action and Referrals to Regulatory and Appeals Board Disciplinary action against permanent licensee 88

(1) If the Executive Director proposes to take action under clause 47B(1)(

a) of the Act, the Executive Director must serve a notice of proposed action on the permanent licensee.

(2) A notice of proposed action may be in any form, but it must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) a description of the proposed action, as set out in clause 47(1)(b), (

c) or (

d) of the Act, as applicable; (

b) written reasons supporting the proposed action, including how the permanent licensee has failed to comply with the conditions of a permanent license, has contravened the Act or these regulations or has been convicted of an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada) or a quasi-criminal statute, as applicable, as set out in subsection 47B(1) of the 269

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c) a statement that the permanent licensee may object in writing to the proposed action in accordance with subsections (3) and (4); (

d) a description of the actions available to the Executive Director under subsection (5).

(3) To object to a proposed action, the permanent licensee on whom the notice of proposed action was served must file a written notice of objection with the Executive Director no later than 14 days after the date the notice of proposed action was served on the permanent licensee.

(4) A notice of objection may be in any form, but it must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) the name, address and phone number of the permanent licensee; (

b) a copy of the notice of proposed action; (

c) the reason the permanent licensee objects to the proposed action.

(5) After considering any objection to a notice of proposed action, the Executive Director must do 1 of the following: (

a) take the proposed action; (

b) rescind the notice of proposed action; (

c) vary the proposed action, but only if the action taken is permitted by clause 47(1)(b), (

c) or (

d) of the Act; (

d) refer the matter to the Regulatory and Appeals Board in accordance with subsection 47B(1)(

b) of the Act.

(6) The Executive Director must serve notice of the decision made under subsection (5) on the permanent licensee who is the subject of the decision. Immediate action against permanent licensee 89

(1) The Executive Director may take immediate action against a permanent licensee under clause 47B(1)(

a) of the Act if, in the opinion of the Executive Director, the permanent licensee is providing liquor to patrons in an irresponsible manner, is unable to ensure the care and control of the licensed premises or is otherwise acting in a manner that may threaten public safety.

(2) For immediate action taken under subsection (1), the notice and objection provisions in

Section 88 do not apply.

(3) The Executive Director must serve notice of the immediate action taken, including reasons supporting the action, on the permanent licensee against whom the action is taken, and the action is effective immediately on the notice being served.

(4) A permanent licensee may appeal an immediate action to the Regulatory and Appeals Board in accordance with

Section 90 if the action (

a) imposes or amends conditions on their permanent license on an ongoing basis; 270

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b) suspends their permanent license on an ongoing basis; or (

c) cancels all or any part of their permanent license.

(5) In addressing an appeal of an immediate action, the Regulatory and Appeals Board must only confirm, vary or revoke the immediate action from the date of the Board’s decision forward, and must not determine the correctness of the action taken by the Executive Director. Appeal of licensing decision, disciplinary decision or administrative penalty 90

(1) To appeal a decision of the Executive Director on licensing under

Section 47A of the Act, a disciplinary action taken by the Executive Director under subsection 47B(2) of the Act or an administrative penalty imposed or the amount of an administrative penalty imposed by the Executive Director under these regulations, the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license must file a notice of appeal with the Regulatory and Appeals Board no later than 14 days after the date of the Executive Director’s decision or action.

(2) A notice of appeal may be in any form, but it must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) the name, address and phone number of the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license; (

b) a copy of the Executive Director’s decision that is being appealed; (

c) the remedy the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license is seeking on appeal.

(3) On receipt of a notice of appeal, the Regulatory and Appeals Board must provide a copy of it to the Executive Director.

(4) A hearing by the Regulatory and Appeals Board to determine a matter in an appeal may be held as an oral hearing or through written submissions, as the Board considers appropriate.

(5) The Regulatory and Appeals Board may determine its own rules respecting practice and procedure for an appeal.

(6) A permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license may be represented by counsel in an appeal.

(7) The following are parties to an appeal: (

a) the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license; (

b) the Executive Director; (

c) any person that the Regulatory and Appeals Board specifies.

(8) The Executive Director may choose a designate to participate in an appeal on behalf of the Executive Director.

(9) Unless it is rescinded under

Section 47C of the Act, a decision of the Executive Director that is not appealed is final and binding. 271

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Rescinding decision 91

(1) Subject to subsection (2), the Executive Director may rescind a decision in accordance with

Section 47C of the Act no later than 28 days after the date of the decision.

(2) A decision that is appealed to the Regulatory and Appeals Board is not rescindable once the Board has rendered a decision in the appeal.

(3) On rescinding a decision, the Executive Director must serve notice of the rescission (

a) on the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license who is the subject of the decision; and (

b) if the decision has been appealed to the Regulatory and Appeals Board, on the Board.

(4) On receipt of a notice that the Executive Director has rescinded a decision that has been appealed to the Regulatory and Appeals Board, the Board must serve notice of the rescission on any person that the Board has specified as a party to the appeal. Notice of referral to Regulatory and Appeals Board 92

(1) If the Executive Director refers a licensing matter to the Regulatory and Appeals Board under subsection 47(3) of the Act or refers a disciplinary action to the Regulatory and Appeals Board under clause 47B(1)(

b) of the Act, a notice of the referral must be (

a) filed with the Regulatory and Appeals Board; and (

b) served on the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license who is the subject of the referral.

(2) A notice of referral may be in any form, but it must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) whether the referral is made under subsection 47(3) or clause 47B(1)(

b) of the Act; (

b) the matter to be determined by the Regulatory and Appeals Board; (

c) a statement that the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license has a right to participate in the referral process. Referral of licensing matter 93

(1) The Regulatory and Appeals Board may determine its own rules respecting practice and procedure for a licensing matter that has been referred to it by the Executive Director under subsection 47(3) of the Act.

(2) A permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license may be represented by counsel in a licensing matter.

(3) Once a permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license is notified that a licensing matter has been referred to the Regulatory and Appeals Board and given an opportunity to participate, the Board may proceed without the participation of the licensee or applicant without further notice to the licensee or applicant.

(4) A hearing by the Regulatory and Appeals Board to determine a licensing matter may be held as an oral hearing or through written submissions, as the Board considers appropriate. 272

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12

(5) The Executive Director must give the Regulatory and Appeals Board a copy of any documentation submitted under these regulations by a permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license with respect to whom a licensing matter has been referred to the Board.

(6) As set out in subsections 47(1) and (3) of the Act, in determining a licensing matter, the Regulatory and Appeals Board may, subject to the Act, but otherwise in the Board’s discretion, do any of the following: (

a) grant, renew and transfer licenses to sell liquor in accordance with the conditions of the licenses and of the Act and these regulations; (

b) impose conditions on any license or rescind or amend existing conditions on a license in accordance with the Act and these regulations; (

c) suspend all or any part of a license for such time that the Board considers appropriate; (

d) cancel all or any part of a licence; (

e) impose an administrative penalty in accordance with the ranges for penalties in subsection 84(1) and the considerations set out in clauses 84(2)(

a) to (g). Referral of disciplinary matter 94

(1) The Regulatory and Appeals Board may determine its own rules respecting practice and procedure for a disciplinary matter that has been referred to it by the Executive Director under [clause] 47B(1)(

b) of the Act.

(2) A permanent licensee may be represented by counsel in a disciplinary matter.

(3) Once a permanent licensee is notified that a disciplinary matter has been referred to the Regulatory and Appeals Board and given an opportunity to participate, the Board may proceed without the permanent licensee’s participation without further notice to the licensee.

(4) A hearing by the Regulatory and Appeals Board to determine a disciplinary matter may be held as an oral hearing or through written submissions, as the Board considers appropriate.

(5) As set out in clauses 47E(2)(

a) to (

e) and subsection 47E(3) of the Act, in determining a disciplinary matter, the Regulatory and Appeals Board may, subject to the Act, but otherwise in the Board’s discretion, do any of the following: (

a) impose conditions on a license; (

b) rescind or amend existing conditions on a license; (

c) suspend all or any part of a license for any period of time that the Board considers appropriate; (

d) cancel all or any part of a licence; (

e) impose an administrative penalty in accordance with the ranges for penalties in subsection 84(1) and the considerations set out in clauses 84(2)(

a) to (g); (

f) order, in accordance with the Act and these regulations, another remedy that the Board considers appropriate. 273

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Suspended licenses 95

(1) On suspending a license, the Executive Director must set the date that the suspension begins.

(2) The Executive Director may require that a notice be posted at a licensed premises for which the license is suspended that states that the license has been suspended by the Executive Director and giving the reason for the suspension. Suspension of license on bankruptcy or receivership of permanent licensee 96

(1) The permanent license of a permanent licensee who goes into bankruptcy or receivership is suspended as of the date of the receiving order, the receivership appointment or receivership order, as the case may be.

(2) A permanent license that is suspended because the licensee goes into bankruptcy or receivership expires 12 months from the date the license is suspended unless 1 of the following occurs before the end of the 12 months: (

a) the license expires because the expiry date set out on the license passes; (

b) a transfer of the license is approved; (

c) the receiver, trustee or liquidator has applied to the Executive Director to approve the operation of the licensed premises under a permanent license held in trust by the receiver, trustee or liquidator and the Executive Director has approved the operation for a period of no longer than 6 months. Suspension of license on foreclosure of licensed premises 97

(1) The license of a permanent licensee whose licensed premises is [are] subject to foreclosure is suspended as of the date of the order for foreclosure and sale.

(2) A permanent license suspended because a licensed premises is [are] subject to foreclosure remains suspended for no longer than 6 months, as determined by the Executive Director, after which the permanent license expires. Public Consultations Form and manner of public consultation 98

(1) The Executive Director must provide public notice of a public consultation using at least 1 of the following methods: (

a) newspaper; (

b) mail distribution; (

c) a method that provides reasonable notice to the public, as determined by the Executive Director.

(2) Public notice of a public consultation must be (

a) publicly available for at least 5 business days; and (

b) provided in (

i) the licensing area where the licensed premises is [are] located, if a permanent 274

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 license has already been granted, or (ii) the licensing area where the proposed licensed premises is [are] to be located, if a permanent license is being sought.

(3) Public notice of a public consultation must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) the reason for the public consultation; (

b) the name of the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license whose licensed or proposed licensed premises is [are] the subject of the public consultation; (

c) the location of the licensed or proposed licensed premises that is [are] the subject of the public consultation; (

d) for a public consultation on an application for a permanent license, as required under subsections 49(8) and 49(12) of the Act, the approximate maximum number of persons that the proposed licensed premises may hold, in accordance with subsection 22(1); (

e) a statement that any person may, by filing a notice with the Executive Director by the deadline set in the public notice, (

i) object to the application, if an application for a permanent license is the subject of the public consultation, or (ii) comment on a matter that is the subject of the public consultation. Notice of comment or objection 99

(1) A notice of comment or objection filed as part of a public consultation must be in writing and include all of the following: (

a) the name, address and phone number of the person providing the comment or objection; (

b) the name of the permanent licensee or applicant for a permanent license or the location of the licensed premises or proposed licensed premises that is the subject of the comment or objection; (

c) the comment or objection.

(2) On receiving a comment or objection about a matter that is the subject of a public consultation, the Executive Director (

a) must consider the comment or objection; and (

b) may make inquiries, request documentation or hold a meeting for the purpose of determining the matter. Information from previous public consultation held in municipality 100 If a licensing matter on which the Executive Director is holding a public consultation has already undergone a public consultation or hearing in the municipality where the licensed premises or proposed licensed premises is [are] located, the Executive Director may consider any information from that previous consultation or hearing in determining the matter under

Section 102. 275

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Referring matter to Regulatory and Appeals Board before or after public consultation 101

(1) The Executive Director may refer a matter to the Regulatory and Appeals Board for determination either before or after any public consultation has taken place.

(2) If the matter is referred to the Regulatory and Appeals Board before any public consultation has taken place, in addition to determining the matter, the Board is responsible for any public consultation held respecting the matter.

(3) The Executive Director may assist in a public consultation held by the Regulatory and Appeals Board, as directed by the Board. Determination after public consultation 102

(1) After holding a public consultation for the purpose of determining whether to grant a license, in accordance with subsection 49(8) or 49(12) of the Act, the Executive Director must do 1 of the following: (

a) grant the application for a permanent license, and impose any conditions on the license that the Executive Director determines, in accordance with the Act and these regulations; (

b) refuse to grant the application for a permanent license; (

c) refer the matter to the Regulatory and Appeals Board in accordance with subsection 47(3) of the Act.

(2) After holding a public consultation for the purpose of determining whether to impose, rescind or amend conditions on a permanent license in accordance with subsection 27(2) of these regulations, the Executive Director may (

a) impose conditions on the license; (

b) rescind or amend existing conditions on the license; or (

c) refer the matter to the Regulatory and Appeals Board in accordance with subsection 47(3) of the Act. Documents Service of documents and deemed receipt 103

(1) A document that is served under these regulations must be served (

a) in the case of an individual, (

i) personally, (ii) by registered mail to the individual’s most recent address known to the person sending the document, or (iii) by facsimile or other electronic transmission that allows proof of successful transmission; or (

b) in the case of a corporation, 276

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 (

i) personally on the recognized agent or a director, manager or officer of the corporation, (ii) by registered mail to the registered office of the corporation or, for an extra-provincial corporation, to the office of its legal counsel in the Province, or (iii) by facsimile or other electronic transmission that allows proof of successful transmission.

(2) Service under these regulations to a licensee who cannot be found in the Province may be effected by posting a copy of the document being served in a conspicuous place on the premises for which the license is held.

(3) Any document that is served by registered mail is deemed to have been received by the addressee 3 days after the date of the first attempt by the postal service to deliver the document, unless the addressee establishes that they did not, acting in good faith, through absence, incident, illness or other cause beyond their control, receive a copy of the document until a later date than the deemed date of receipt.

(4) Service by facsimile or other electronic transmission is deemed to have been received the day after it was sent or, if that deemed date of receipt is a Saturday or a holiday, on the next day that is not a Saturday or a holiday, unless the person being served establishes that they did not, acting in good faith, through absence, incident, illness or other cause beyond their control, receive a copy until a later date than the deemed date of receipt.

Certified copy admissible in evidence 104 A copy of a document that purports to be certified by the Executive Director or an inspector as being a true copy of the original is admissible in evidence in any proceeding under the Act or these regulations. 23 The regulations are further amended by striking out “Review Board” wherever it appears and substituting “Regulatory and Appeals Board”. N.S. Reg. 129/2026 Ferment-on-Premises Regulations–amendment

Schedule “B” Amendment to the Ferment-on-Premises Regulations made by the Governor in Council under

Section 50 of

Chapter 260 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Liquor Control Act 1

(1) The Ferment-on-Premises Regulations, N.S. Reg. 164/2014, made by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2014-441 dated October 28, 2024 [2014], are amended by striking out “for disciplinary action and referrals to Review Board” in the heading immediately before

Section 25.

(2) Section 25 of the regulations is amended by striking out “81A to 83” and substituting “82 to 95”. 2 Clause 29(2)(

a) of the regulations is amended by adding “video surveillance footage,” immediately before “books of account”. 277

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 130/2026 to 136/2026 Made: March 12, 2026 Approved: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Various Wilderness Area Designations of Additional Lands Order in Council 2026-179 dated May 26, 2026 Designations made by the Minister of Environment and Climate Change and approved by the Governor in Council pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of the Wilderness Areas Protection Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Environment and Climate Change dated March 12, 2026, and pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act (the “Act”), is pleased to approve the designation by the Minister of Environment and Climate Change of (

a) the addition of 53 hectares to Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area, originally designated in item 3 of

Schedule A to the Act, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “A” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

b) the addition of 59 hectares to Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area, originally designated in item 5 of

Schedule A to the Act, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “B” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

c) the addition of 149 hectares to Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and Labour and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2005-165 dated April 22, 2005, N.S. Reg. 92/2005, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “C” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

d) the addition of 7 hectares to Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2011-372 dated October 18, 2011, N.S. Reg. 293/2011, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “D” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

e) the addition of 234 hectares to Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-421 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 421/2015, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “E” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

f) the addition of 85 hectares to Roseway River Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-377 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 377/2015, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “F” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; and (

g) the addition of 41 hectares to Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-381 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 381/2015, in the manner set forth in

Schedule “G” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation. 278

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 130/2026 Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “A” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Guysborough County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix A, as an addition to Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area, originally designated in item 3 of

Schedule A to the Act. The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 279

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix A Addition to Bonnet Lake Barrens Wilderness Area 280

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 131/2026 Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “B” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Guysborough County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix B, as an addition to Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area, originally designated in item 5 of

Schedule A to the Act. The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 281

N.S. Reg. 131/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix B Addition to Canso Coastal Barrens Wilderness Area 282

N.S. Reg. 132/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 132/2026 Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “C” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Antigonish County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix C, as an addition to Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and Labour and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2005-165 dated April 22, 2005, N.S. Reg. 92/2005.

The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 283

N.S. Reg. 132/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix C Addition to Eigg Mountain-James River Wilderness Area 284

N.S. Reg. 133/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 133/2026 Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “D” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Halifax County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix D, as an addition to Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2011-372 dated October 18, 2011, N.S. Reg. 293/2011.

The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 285

N.S. Reg. 133/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix D Addition to Five Bridge Lakes Wilderness Area 286

N.S. Reg. 134/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 134/2026 Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “E” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Richmond and Cape Breton Counties, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix E, as an addition to Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-421 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 421/2015.

The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 287

N.S. Reg. 134/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix E Addition to Fourchu Coast Wilderness Area 288

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 135/2026 Roseway River Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “F” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Roseway River Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Shelburne County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix F, as an addition to Roseway River Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-377 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 377/2015.

The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 289

N.S. Reg. 135/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix F Addition to Roseway River Wilderness Area 290

N.S. Reg. 136/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 136/2026 Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “G” In the matter of

Section 11 of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of lands to be added to Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to clause 11(3)(

b) of

Chapter 27 of the Acts of 1998, the Wilderness Areas Protection Act, hereby designate an area of Crown land in Halifax County, with approximate boundaries as shown on the map attached as Appendix G, as an addition to Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-381 dated December 29, 2015, N.S. Reg. 381/2015.

The actual boundaries of the designated additional area shall be as described and shown on a description and plan signed by the Director of Surveys and deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre, formerly known as the Provincial Crown Lands Record Centre, the signed description and plan forming part of this designation. This designation of additional land is effective on and after the later of the date it is approved by the Governor in Council and the date the description and plan are deposited in the Provincial Crown Land Information Management Centre.

Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sdg. T. Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change 291

N.S. Reg. 136/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix G Addition to Toadfish Lakes Wilderness Area 292

N.S. Reg. 137/2026 to 139/2026 - 137/2026 Royal Gazette

Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 137/2026 to 139/2026 Made: March 12, 2026 Approved: May 26, 2026 Filed: May 26, 2026 Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation; Diligent River Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands; Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands Order in Council 2026-180 dated May 26, 2026 Designations made by the Minister of Environment and Climate Change and approved by the Governor in Council pursuant to

Section 14 of the Special Places Protection Act The Governor in Council on the report and recommendation of the Minister of Environment and Climate Change dated March 12, 2026, and pursuant to

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act, is pleased to approve the designation by the Minister of Environment and Climate Change of (

a) an ecological site to be known as Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve, in the form set forth in

Schedule “A” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; (

b) an addition to Diligent River Nature Reserve ecological site designation, N.S. Reg. 430/2015, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-430 dated December 29, 2015, in the form set forth in

Schedule “B” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation; and (

c) an addition to Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve ecological site designation, N.S. Reg. 237/2004, originally designated by the Minister of Environment and Labour and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2004-470 dated December 3, 2004, in the form set forth in

Schedule “C” attached to and forming part of the report and recommendation. N.S. Reg. 137/2026 Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation

Schedule “A” In the matter of

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of an ecological site in Digby County to be known as Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act, hereby designate the area of land described in Appendix A and shown on the map attached as Appendix B, as an ecological site to be known as Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve. 293

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Pursuant to subsection 14(3) of the Act, this designation is effective on and after the date it is published in the Royal Gazette. In accordance with subsection 14(6) of the Act, this description will be registered in the registry of deeds office for the registration district in which the lands are situated. Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sgd. T.

Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change Appendix A Description of Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve All that certain piece or parcel of land situate, lying and being on Highway 101 in Marshalltown, in the County of Digby and Province of Nova Scotia, and shown as Lot TMMNR on a Compiled Plan prepared by Matthew J.

LeBlanc, NSLS, Plan Number 2025-368C REV1, dated October 29, 2025, revised on January 16, 2026, and bounded and described as follows: Beginning at a survey marker at the northeast corner of lands identified by PID 30148761, said survey marker being designated as point A on the abovementioned plan and being the POINT OF BEGINNING; Thence south 63 degrees 12 minutes 33 seconds west, a distance of 40.234 metres, along the northern boundary of lands identified by PID 30148761, to a survey marker; Thence south 33 degrees 27 minutes 30 seconds west, a distance of 21.502 metres, to a survey marker; Thence south 53 degrees 52 minutes 59 seconds west, a distance of 35.352 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 1-A, lands identified by PID 30148753, to a survey marker; Thence north 79 degrees 11 minutes 43 seconds west, a distance of 43.829 metres, to a survey marker; Thence south 48 degrees 23 minutes 55 seconds west, a distance of 80.467 metres, along the northern boundary of lands identified by PID 30148746, to a survey marker; Thence south 41 degrees 36 minutes 05 seconds east, a distance of 72.542 metres, along the western boundary of lands identified by PID 30148746, to a survey marker; Thence south 48 degrees 24 minutes 44 seconds west, a distance of 22.860 metres, along the northern boundary of lands identified by PID 30148738, to a survey marker; Thence south 41 degrees 36 minutes 05 seconds east, a distance of 22.860 metres, along the western boundary of lands identified by PID 30148738, to a calculated point; Thence in a southwesterly direction, following a curve to the right of radius 658.646 metres, an arc distance of 74.289 metres, along the northern boundary of Highway 101, to a survey marker, said survey marker being south 51 degrees 51 minutes 44 seconds west, a chord distance of 74.250 metres from the aforesaid calculated point; Thence north 30 degrees 35 minutes 12 seconds west, a distance of 268.291 metres along the eastern boundary of Lot 3, lands identified by PID 30148704, to a survey marker; 294

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Thence south 55 degrees 45 minutes 21 seconds west, a distance of 91.457 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 3, lands identified by PID 30148704, to a survey marker; Thence south 30 degrees 35 minutes 24 seconds east, a distance of 203.042 metres, along the western boundary of Lot 3, lands identified by PID 30148704, to a survey marker; Thence south 55 degrees 58 minutes 03 seconds west, a distance of 66.977 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 3A, lands identified by PID 30148696, to a survey marker; Thence north 34 degrees 01 minutes 57 seconds west, a distance of 67.599 metres, along the eastern boundary of lands identified by PID 30148688, to a survey marker; Thence south 56 degrees 01 minutes 00 seconds west, a distance of 80.775 metres, along the northern boundary of lands identified by PID 30148688, to a survey marker; Thence north 34 degrees 37 minutes 23 seconds west, a distance of 181.408 metres, along the eastern boundary of lands identified by PID 30146724 and other lands identified by PID 30256200, to an axle; Thence north 14 degrees 03 minutes 14 seconds east, a distance of 27.544 metres, along the eastern boundary of lands identified by PID 30256200, to an axle; Thence north 28 degrees 54 minutes 35 seconds west, a distance of 128.141 metres, along the eastern boundary of lands identified by PID 30256200, to an axle; Thence north 23 degrees 06 minutes 39 seconds east, a distance of 48.299 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 27 degrees 57 minutes 33 seconds east, a distance of 52.352 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 36 degrees 22 minutes 11 seconds east, a distance of 127.772 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 19 degrees 51 minutes 31 seconds east, a distance of 96.196 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 04 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds east, a distance of 23.974 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 09 degrees 57 minutes 28 seconds west, a distance of 32.014 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 26 degrees 08 minutes 34 seconds west, a distance of 46.227 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 48 degrees 20 minutes 31 seconds east, a distance of 77.444 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 59 degrees 53 minutes 26 seconds east, a distance of 26.234 metres, along the southeast boundary of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to a survey marker; Thence north 73 degrees 49 minutes 15 seconds east, a distance of 49.958 metres, along the southeast boundary 295

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 of Lot 1000ABCDE, lands identified by PID 30321871, to an axle; Thence south 36 degrees 25 minutes 25 seconds east, a distance of 610.553 metres, along the western boundary of lands identified by PID 30148845, to a survey marker, said survey marker being the Point of Beginning. A tract of land containing an area of 24.1440 hectares. All distances are horizontal grid distances, combined scale factor 1.00003629 applied.

All bearings are Grid, based on a 3 degree Modified Transverse Mercator Projection, Zone 5, Central Meridian 64 degrees 30 minutes west Longitude, NAD 83 (CSRS) 2010.0 V7. Appendix B Map Showing Approximate Boundaries of Toy Makers Marsh Nature Reserve 296

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 138/2026 Diligent River Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “B” In the matter of

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of an ecological site in Cumberland County as an addition to Diligent River Nature Reserve I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act, hereby designate the area of land described in Appendix A and shown on the map attached as Appendix B, as an addition to the Diligent River Nature Reserve ecological site designation, N.S. Reg. 430/2015, made by the Minister of Environment and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2015-430 dated December 29, 2015. Pursuant to subsection 14(3) of the Act, this designation is effective on and after the date it is published in the Royal Gazette.

In accordance with subsection 14(6) of the Act, this description will be registered in the registry of deeds office for the registration district in which the lands are situated. Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sgd. T.

Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change Appendix A Description of Addition to Diligent River Nature Reserve PID 25207341 All and Singular that certain lands situated, lying and being at Highway No. 631, West Bay, in the county of Cumberland, Province of Nova Scotia, said lands, PID 25207341, being shown on Compiled Plan 25-11332-2-15A, prepared by Strum Consulting, October 31, 2025, PID 25207341 being more particularly described as follows: Premising that directions are quadrant bearings, derived from GPS observations referenced to the Nova Scotia Coordinate Survey System and are referred to Central Meridian, 64 degrees 30 minutes west (Zone 5).

Beginning at Crown survey marker C3704 on the western boundary of lands of Nova Scotia Department of Natural Resources (Doc. 95201142). Said survey marker being south 75 degrees 37 minutes 46 seconds west a distance of 11,869.153 metres from Nova Scotia High Precision Network Monument 212696. Said survey 297

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 marker being referred to as the POINT OF BEGINNING.

Thence south 12 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds east along western boundary of said Nova Scotia Department of Natural Resources lands a distance of 2 metres, more or less, to a point on the ordinary high water mark of Mill brook; Thence westerly, northerly and easterly following the several courses of the ordinary high water mark of said brook and the ordinary high water mark of Diligent River a distance of 1627 metres, more or less, to a point being the intersection of the ordinary high water mark of said river and the western boundary of said Nova Scotia Department of Natural Resources lands; Thence south 12 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds east along said western boundary a distance of 7 metres, more or less, to Crown survey marker C3700; Thence continuing south 12 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds east along said western boundary a distance of 731.785 metres to Crown survey marker C3704.

Said survey marker being referred to as the Point of Beginning. Said PID 25207341 having an area of 67 acres (27.0 hectares), more or less. Being and Intended to be lands conveyed to Nova Scotia Department of Environment and Climate Change by indenture recorded at the county of Cumberland registry of deeds in Document No. 120357570. 298

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Appendix B Map Showing Approximate Boundaries of Addition to Diligent River Nature Reserve 299

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 N.S. Reg. 139/2026 Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve Ecological Site Designation of Additional Lands

Schedule “C” In the matter of

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act - and - In the matter of the designation of an ecological site in Shelburne County as an addition to Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve I, Timothy Halman, Minister of Environment and Climate Change for the Province of Nova Scotia, pursuant to

Section 14 of

Chapter 438 of the Revised Statutes of Nova Scotia, 1989, the Special Places Protection Act, hereby designate the area of land described in Appendix A and shown on the map attached as Appendix B, as an addition to the Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve ecological site designation, N.S. Reg. 237/2004, made by the Minister of Environment and Labour and approved by the Governor in Council by Order in Council 2004-470 dated December 3, 2004. Pursuant to subsection 14(3) of the Act, this designation is effective on and after the date it is published in the Royal Gazette.

In accordance with subsection 14(6) of the Act, this description will be registered in the registry of deeds office for the registration district in which the lands are situated. Dated and made at Halifax Regional Municipality, Province of Nova Scotia, March 12, 2026. sgd. T.

Halman Honourable Timothy Halman Minister of Environment and Climate Change Appendix A Description of Addition to Quinns Meadow Nature Reserve All that certain piece or parcel of land situate, lying and being near Upper Clyde Road in Clyde River, in the County of Shelburne and Province of Nova Scotia, and shown as Lot QMNR on a Compiled Plan prepared by Matthew J.

LeBlanc, NSLS, Plan Number 2025-366C, dated October 30, 2025, and bounded and described as follows: Beginning at a survey marker at the southeastern corner of Lot 42, said survey marker being designated as point A on the abovementioned plan and being the Point of Beginning; Thence south 42 degrees 45 minutes 57 seconds east, a distance of 652.755 metres, along the western boundary of Crown Land, to a survey marker (Crown No. S1532); Thence south 58 degrees 05 minutes 51 seconds west, a distance of 746.226 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 38, Crown Land, to a survey marker (Crown No. S1531); 300

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Part II - Regulations Vol. 50, No. 12 Thence continuing south 58 degrees 05 minutes 51 seconds west, a distance of 663.041 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 38, Crown Land, to a survey marker (Crown No. S1530); Thence continuing south 58 degrees 05 minutes 51 seconds west, a distance of 739.005 metres, along the northern boundary of Lot 38, Crown Land, to a survey marker (Crown No.

S1529); Thence continuing south 58 degrees 05 minutes 51 seconds west, a distance of 6.0 metres more or less, along the northern boundary of Lot 38, Crown Land, to a point on the ordinary high water mark of Clyde River; Thence in a generally northwesterly direction following the various courses of the eastern boundary of Clyde River to a calculated point at the southwestern corner of Lot 1, said calculated point being north 75 degrees 29 minutes 29 seconds west, a distance of 565.024 metres, from aforementioned survey marker (Crown No.

S1529); Thence north 56 degrees 48 minutes 08 seconds east, a distance of 61.316 metres more or less, along the southern boundary of Lot 1, to a survey marker; Thence north 25 degrees 31 minutes 10 seconds west, a distance of 92.267 metres, along the eastern boundary of Lot 1, to a survey marker; Thence south 56 degrees 48 minutes 08 seconds west, a distance of 61.240 metres more or less, along the no