Alberta Gazette — 15 September (ii)

0915 ii

Alberta — Gazette

Alberta Regulation 176/2000

Wildlife Act

WILDLIFE AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 21, 2000

Made by the Minister of Environment (M.O. 54/2000) on August 8, 2000

pursuant to sections 15, 25 and 96 of the Wildlife Act.

1 The Wildlife Regulation (AR 143/97) is amended by this Regulation.

Section 3 is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (ii):

(ii.1) "partner special licence" or "partner

licence" means a special licence, relating to a specific kind of big game

animal, that is held or to be held pursuant to a designation under

section

30(2.1);

(ii.2) "principal special licence" or "principal licence"

means a resident special licence whose holder has been given the

opportunity to designate, and has designated or is to designate, a person

in accordance with

section 30(2.1);

(

b) by repealing clause (oo) and substituting the following:

(oo) "resident", used with reference to a licence or a

particular kind of licence, refers to a licence, or a licence of that kind,

that only a resident is eligible to obtain or hold;

Section 29 is amended by adding the following after subsection (1):

(1.1) A person is eligible to obtain or hold a partner special

licence if and only if he

(

a) meets the requirements of subsection (1),

(

b) is a resident, and

(

c) has been designated, with respect to a principal special

licence, under

section 30(2.1).

Section 30 is amended

(

a) by adding the following after subsection (2):

(2.1) The Minister may give the holder of a resident special licence

that authorizes its holder to hunt a big game animal the opportunity to

designate a person who is eligible under

section 29(1.1), to obtain and

hold a special licence (being a partner special licence) and, where that

opportunity has been given and is taken, then, for the purposes of this

Regulation, the 2 licences are associated with each other.

(2.2) Only one person may be designated to obtain and hold a partner

special licence in association with any one principal special licence.

(2.3) Subject to this section, a partner special licence authorizes

and only authorizes its holder to hunt a single big game animal of a kind

specified in the title of that licence,

(

a) during

(

i) the open season in which the associated

principal special licence holder is entitled to hunt the same kind of

animal under the associated principal licence, and

(ii) a period when that principal licence

holder is actively hunting for the same kind of big game animal in the same

area as the holder of the partner licence,

(

b) in the area specified in the partner licence, which

is to be the same as the area specified in the associated principal

licence, and

(

c) in circumstances where the two hunters are within

sufficiently close proximity to each other that they can effectively advise

and assist each other without the benefit of any radio, telephone or other

similar device for electronic communication.

(2.4) A principal special licence or a partner special licence is no

longer valid to authorize hunting if the holder of the associated licence

has killed an animal under the authority of that associated licence.

(

b) in subsection (17)

(

i) by striking out "202,";

(ii) by striking out "230, 238 to 242" and substituting

"228";

(iii) by adding "337, 338," after "334,".

Section 98 is amended

(

a) by adding the following after subsection (1):

(1.1) A person who holds a principal or a partner special licence

and who kills an animal under the authority of that licence shall forthwith

ensure that the holder of the associated special licence is made aware of

that fact and, where the kill was made by the partner licence holder, the

principal licence holder shall, immediately on being so notified, go to the

location of the carcass and, immediately on arriving there, affix the tag

issued with the principal licence to the carcass in the same manner as is

set out in subsection (1)(b).

(

b) by adding the following after subsection (6):

(6.1) A person who possesses the carcass of a moose killed under the

authority of a calf moose special licence and to which a tag has been

affixed in accordance with subsection (1)(

b) shall retain, with the

carcass, the complete head until the carcass has been delivered to the

usual place of residence of the individual who killed the animal and is

butchered, cut up and packaged for consumption, or to premises described in

subsection (3)(c)(ii).

Section 130 is amended by adding the following after subsection (2):

(2.1) A person who kills a wolf in any of WMUs 300 to 316 or 400 to

414 shall personally submit a report to the Service within 30 days after

the date on which the wolf was killed.

Section 139 is amended by striking out "440" and substituting "400".

Schedule 8 is amended in

Part 1 by adding the following after item 41:

41.1 Resident partner special licence 4.00

Schedule 9 is amended in

Part 1

(

a) by repealing item 16 and substituting the following:

16 Majorville Wildlife Management Unit

(138) Commencing where secondary road 842 crosses the Bow

River, near Cluny; thence downstream along the right bank of the Bow River

to the Crowfoot Ferry Road approximately 7 miles west of Bassano; thence

northerly along the Crowfoot Ferry Road to highway 1 (TransCanada); thence

southeasterly along highway 1 (TransCanada) to highway 36; thence southerly

along highway 36 to secondary road 539; thence westerly and southerly along

secondary road 539 across the Bow River; thence continuing westerly

approximately 8 miles; thence southerly approximately 6 miles along a

gravel road; thence westerly along another gravel road to the C.P.R.

right-of-way; thence northwesterly along the C.P.R. right-of-way to

secondary road 531 near Lomond; thence westerly on secondary road 531 to

secondary road 842; thence northerly along secondary road 842 to secondary

road 534; thence westerly on secondary road 534 approximately 2 miles to

secondary road 842; thence northerly on secondary road 842 to secondary

road 542; thence easterly on secondary road 542 approximately 4 miles to

secondary road 842; thence northerly on secondary road 842 to the point of

commencement.

(

b) by repealing items 18 and 19 and substituting the following:

18 Newell Wildlife Management Unit

(142) Commencing at the junction of secondary road 550 and

highway 1 (TransCanada) near Bassano; thence easterly along secondary road

550 to highway 36; thence southerly on highway 36 to the junction of

highway 36 and secondary road 544; thence easterly on secondary road 544 to

the junction of secondary road 544 and secondary road 876; thence southerly

on secondary road 876 to secondary road 535; thence westerly along

secondary road 535 to secondary road 875; thence southerly along secondary

road 875 to secondary road 530; thence westerly along secondary road 530 to

highway 36; thence northerly along highway 36 to the junction of highway 36

and highway 1 (TransCanada) near Brooks; thence westerly along highway 1

(TransCanada) to the point of commencement.

19 Tilley Wildlife Management Unit

(144) Commencing at the junction of highway 1 (TransCanada) and

secondary road 884 near Suffield townsite; thence southerly along secondary

road 884 to secondary road 524; thence westerly along secondary road 524 to

secondary road 525; thence northwesterly along secondary road 525 to

secondary road 875; thence northerly along secondary road 875 to secondary

road 535; thence easterly along secondary road 535 to secondary road 876;

thence northerly along secondary road 876 to secondary road 544; thence

easterly along secondary road 544 to secondary road 884; thence southerly

along secondary road 884 to the boundary of the Suffield Military Reserve;

thence southerly along the western boundary of the Suffield Military

Reserve to the northwest corner of

section 3, township 15, range 9, west of

the fourth meridian; thence southerly along secondary road 884 to highway 1

(TransCanada); thence southeasterly along highway 1 (TransCanada) to the

point of commencement.

(

c) by repealing items 21, 22 and 23 and substituting the

following:

21 Jenner Wildlife Management Unit

(150) Commencing at the junction of secondary road 884 and

secondary road 555 near Jenner; thence easterly along secondary road 555 to

highway 41; thence northerly along highway 41 to the Red Deer River; thence

easterly along the right bank of the Red Deer River to the

Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary; thence southerly along the

Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary to the Hilda road between townships 17 and

18; thence westerly along the Hilda road and continuing westerly between

townships 17 and 18 to the eastern boundary of the Suffield Military

Reserve; thence northerly, westerly and southwesterly along the eastern,

northern and western boundaries of the Suffield Military reserve to a point

where the boundary meets secondary road 884 approximately 13 miles south of

Jenner; thence northerly along secondary road 884 to the point of

commencement.

22 Alkali Creek Wildlife Management Unit

(151) Commencing at the junction of secondary roads 884 and old

secondary road 565 near Big Stone; thence easterly along old secondary road

565 to secondary road 886; thence northerly along secondary road 886 4

miles; thence directly east on gravel road to old secondary road 565 and

continuing easterly along old secondary road 565 to highway 41; thence

northerly along highway 41 to secondary road 570; thence easterly along

secondary road 570 to the Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary; thence southerly

along the Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary to the right bank of the Red Deer

River; thence westerly along the Red Deer River to highway 41; thence

southerly along highway 41 to secondary road 555; thence westerly along

secondary road 555 to secondary road 884; thence northerly along secondary

road 884 to the point of commencement.

23 Royal Wildlife Management Unit

(152) Commencing at the junction of secondary roads 884 and 544

approximately 6 miles south of Jenner; thence westerly along secondary road

544 to highway 36; thence northerly along highway 36 to secondary highway

550; thence westerly along secondary highway 550 to highway 1

(TransCanada); thence westerly along highway 1 to highway 56; thence

northerly along highway 56 to secondary road 561 near Hussar; thence

easterly along secondary road 561 to secondary road 862; thence northerly

along secondary road 862 to old secondary road 565 near Finnegan; thence

easterly along old secondary road 565 to highway 36; thence southerly on

highway 36 approximately 2 miles to old secondary road 565; thence

continuing easterly on old secondary road 565 to secondary road 884; thence

southerly on secondary road 884 to the point of commencement.

Schedule 10 is amended in

Part 3

(

a) by repealing item 7 and substituting the following:

7 Cougar Management Area 7: WMUs 314, 316, 318 and 320.

7.1 Cougar Management Area 7A: WMUs 412, 414, 416, 417 and 418.

(

b) by repealing item 9 and substituting the following:

9 Cougar Management Area 9: WMUs 420, 422, 428 and 430.

9.1 Cougar Management Area 9A: WMUs 426, 432 and 434.

(

c) by repealing item 11 and substituting the following:

11 Cougar Management Area 11: WMUs 337, 338, 339, 340, 342, 344

and 352.

11.1 Cougar Management Area 11A: WMUs 346, 347, 348, 349, 350,

505, 507 and 510.

Schedule 12 is amended in

Part 2

(

a) in item 3 by striking out "SE 21-72-12-W6" and substituting "NE

29-16-18-W4";

(

b) by repealing items 4, 17, 22 and 26.

Schedule 15 is amended

(

a) in

section 5

(

i) in clause (

m) by striking out "September 8 to

September 25" and substituting "September 6 to September 23";

(ii) in clause (

o) by striking out "November 25 to

November 27" and substituting "November 23 to November 25";

(

b) in

section 7(3) by repealing clauses (h), (i), (j), (

k) and (

l) and substituting the following:

(

h) in Cougar Management Area 7, 7 female

cougar or 14 cougar,

(

i) in Cougar Management Area 7A, 4 female

cougar or 8 cougar,

(

j) in Cougar Management Area 8, 11 female

cougar or 22 cougar,

(

k) in Cougar Management Area 9, 2 female

cougar or 5 cougar,

(

l) in Cougar Management Area 9A, 2 female

cougar or 3 cougar,

(

m) in Cougar Management Area 10, 2 female

cougar or 4 cougar,

(

n) in Cougar Management Area 11, 2 female

cougar or 4 cougar, and

(

o) in Cougar Management Area 11A, 2 female

cougar or 4 cougar,

(

c) in

section 8(2)(

c) by striking out "December 12" and

substituting "December 10";

(

d) in

section 10(6) by striking out "September 4 to September 6"

and substituting "September 2 to September 4";

(

e) by repealing Tables 1, 2, 3 and 4 and substituting the

following:

SCHEDULE 15

TABLE 1

BIG GAME SEASONS

WMU

SEASON GROUP

GENERAL

SEASONS

ARCHERY ONLY

SEASONS

102,104,106

G24

A18

G24

A38

110,112,116,118,119,124

G24

A18

128,130

G24

A38

132,134,136,138,140,142,144,148,150,151,152

G24

A18

156,158,160

G27

A19

G24

A18

163,164

G27

A19

G32

A22

200,202,203

A26

204,206,208

G25

A22

G27

A19

N/A

A34

G10

A32

G31

A41

220,221,222

G25

A22

G31

A41

226,228,230,232

G25

A22

G34

A10

236,238,240,242,244,246

G25

A22

N/A

A35

G26

A39

252,254,256,258

G25

A22

G30

A23

G22

A16

G41

A17

G21

A17

304,305

G23

A17

306,308

G21

A17

G20

A15

312,314

G49

A15

G37

A24

318,320

G35

A28

322,324

G31

A28

G48

G13

G11

G31

A28

334,336

G31

A41

G31

A28

G36

A29

340,342

G12

G31

A28

349,350

G12

353,354

355,356

357,358

G44

G45

A40

G50

G47

A14

G19

A14

404,406

G17

A12

G18

A13

N/A

A34

412,414

G15

A11

G51

A11

G46

A11

G28

A21

420,422

G51

A11

G14

A11

G51

A11

G51

A11

G15

A11

434,436

G14

A11

G16

A11

438,439

G14

A11

440,441,442,444,445,446

G15

A11

G30

A31

G33

A20

G26

A37

503,504

G42

A33

G38

A25

G26

A37

G31

A28

G25

A22

G34

A30

G40

A27

511,512,514,515,516

G29

517,518

519,520

G29

521,522,523

G44

524,525

G29

G39

A42

G44

G29

529,530,531,532,534

G29

539,540,542

G29

G43

A36

TABLE 2

GENERAL SEASONS

SEASON

GROUP #

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

TROPHY SHEEP

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

Resident

NR - NRA

S1-N30

N1-N30

S1-N30

Closed

S1-O311

N1-N30

Closed

S1-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

S17- N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

S24-N301,5

S17-N304

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

S17-N30

N1-N7

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

S17-N301

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

A25-O317

Closed

TABLE 2

GENERAL SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP #

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

TROPHY SHEEP

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

Resident

NR -NRA

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-D151

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G10

N1-N30

N1-N301

O25-N304

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G11

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-N301

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G12

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G13

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

A25-O317

Closed

G14

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N301

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N303

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-O31

S1-O15

G15

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N30

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N303

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-O31

S1-O15

G16

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N301

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N303

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-S231,7

S24-O311,7

Closed

G17

S24-N301

S17-N301,3

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O31

Closed

G18

S24-N301

Closed

S17-N301,3

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O31

Closed

G19

S24-N30

N1-N15

S24-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O31

Closed

G20

N1-N30

N1-N301

O25-N304

O25-D151

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

Closed

TABLE 2

GENERAL SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP #

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

TROPHY SHEEP

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

Resident

NR - NRA

G21

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

O25-N304

O25-D151

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O31

Closed

G22

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

Closed

G23

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

O25-N304

O25-D151

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

Closed

G24

N2-N256

N2-N251,6

Closed

G25

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G26

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G27

N2-N256

N2-N251,6

N1-N301

Closed

G28

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N301

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N301,3

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-O31

S1-O15

G29

S1-N30

N1-N30

S1-N30

Closed

S1-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S1-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

G30

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

TABLE 2

GENERAL SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

TROPHY SHEEP

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

Resident

NR - NRA

G31

N1-N30

N1-N301

N1-N304

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G32

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

G33

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G34

N1-N30

N1-N301

N1-N301,3

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G35

N1-N30

N1-N7

N1-N301

N1-N304

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G36

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

N1-N301

N1-N304

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G37

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N30

Closed

N1-N301

N1-N304

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G38

N1-N30

N1-N301

N1-N301,5

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G39

S17-N30

N1-N7

S17-N301

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-D151

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

G40

N1-N30

N1-N301

N1-N301,5

N1-N304

N1-D151

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

Closed

G41

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

O25-N304

O25-D151

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O317

Closed

G42

N1-N30

N1-N301

Closed

N1-N301

Closed

S6-N30

Ap1- Ma31

Closed

G43

S17-N30

N1-N30

S17-N30

Closed

S17-O311 N1-N301

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma15

Closed

TABLE 2

GENERAL SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

TROPHY SHEEP

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

Resident

NR-NRA

G44

S17-N30

N1-N7

S17-N301

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-D151

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

G45

S17-N30

N1-N7

S17-N301

S24-O311

N1-N301

S24-N301,5

S17-N304

S17-D151

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

G46

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N30

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N301,3

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-O31

S1-O15

G47

S24-N30

N1-N15

S24-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-N301

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma15

S6-O317

Closed

G48

S17-N30

N1-N15

S17-N30

S17-N301

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

Closed

S17-N30

Ap1-Ma31

A25-O31

Closed

G49

N1-N30

N1-N301

O25-N304

N1-D151

S24-N30

Ap1-Ma15

Closed

G50

S17-N30

N1-N7

S17-N301

Closed

S24-O311

N1-N301

Closed

S17-N304

S17-D151

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

Closed

G51

S24-N30

N1-N30

S24-N301

Closed

S24-O311

Closed

S17-N301,3

Closed

S6-N30

Ap17-Ju15

A25-O31

S1-O15

TABLE 3

ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS

SEASON GROUP #

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

A25-A31

Closed

A25-A31

Closed

A25-A31

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

A25-S16

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

A25-S235

A25-S164

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S5

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

Closed

A25-S5

Closed

A25-S16

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S164

Closed

A25-S16

Closed

A10

S6-O31

S6-0311

S6-0313

S6-031

Closed

A11

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S163

Closed

A25-S5

Closed

TABLE 3

ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP #

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

A12

S6-S23

S6-S163

S6-S16

Closed

A13

S6-S23

Closed

S6-S163

S6-S16

Closed

A14

S6-S23

S6-S231

Closed

S6-S164

S6-S16

Closed

A15

S6-O31

S6-O311

S6-O244

S6-O24

S6-S23

Closed

A16

S6-O31

S6-O311

Closed

S6-S23

Closed

A17

S6-O31

S6-O311

Closed

S6-O244

S6-O24

S6-S23

Closed

A18

S6-N1

Closed

A19

S6-N1

S6-O311

Closed

A20

S6-O31

Closed

A21

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S163

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

A22

S6-O31

S6-O311

Closed

A23

S6-O31

S6-O311

Closed

A24

A25-S23

Closed

S6-O31

S6-O314

Closed

TABLE 3

ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

A25

S6-O31

S6-O315

Closed

A26

S6-O31

S6-O311

Closed

S6-O31

Closed

A27

S6-O31

S6-O315

S6-O314

S6-O31

Closed

A28

S6-O31

S6-O314

S6-O31

Closed

A29

S6-O31

Closed

S6-O31

S6-O314

S6-O31

Closed

A30

S6-O31

S6-O313

S6-O31

Closed

A31

S6-O31

Closed

A32

S6-O31

S6-O311

S6-O244

S6-O24

Closed

A33

S6-O31

Closed

S6-O31

Closed

A34

S6-N30

Ap1-Ma31

TABLE 3

ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)

SEASON GROUP

WHITE-TAILED DEER

MULE DEER

MOOSE

ELK

BLACK BEAR

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Antlered

Antlerless

Fall

Spring

A35

S6-N30

Closed

A36

Closed

A37

S6-O31

Closed

S6-O31

Closed

A38

S6-N1

O1-N1

S6-N1

Closed

A39

S6-031

Closed

S6-0311

Closed

A40

A25-S16

A25-S23

A25-S235

A25-S164

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

A41

S6-031

S6-O31

S6-O311

S6-0311

S6-0314

S6-O31

Closed

A42

A25-S16

A25-S23

Closed

A25-S16

A25-S5

Closed

TABLE 4

ADDITIONAL SEASONS

ITEM NO.

COLUMN I

BIG GAME

COLUMN II

LICENCE TYPE

COLUMN III

OPEN SEASON

COLUMN IV

LOCATION

Trophy sheep

WMU 410 Trophy Sheep Special Licence, or Non-resident / Non-resident Alien

Trophy Sheep Special Licence

S6-N30

WMU 410

Trophy sheep

Resident Trophy Sheep Licence

S6-O31

WMU 410

Non-trophy sheep

Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence

S6-O31

Big Game Zone 4 except non-trophy sheep hunting areas 412, 414, 418C, 422B,

426B, 428, 436, 438B, 439, 441 and 446

Non-trophy sheep

Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence

S9-O31

Big Game Zone 5 except non-trophy sheep hunting areas 404A and 404B.

Non-trophy sheep hunting areas 402A, 402-303, 306 and 402-308

Non-trophy sheep

Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence

S6-N30

Non-trophy sheep hunting area 410

Trophy antelope

Trophy Antelope Special Licence

O16-O21

Antelope hunting areas A, B, C, D and F

Trophy antelope

Trophy Antelope Special Licence

S25-S30

Antelope hunting areas E, G and H

Trophy antelope

Antelope Archery Special Licence, or Non-resident or Non-resident Alien

Trophy Antelope Special Licence

S6-S23

Antelope hunting areas A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

TABLE 4

ADDITIONAL SEASONS (continued)

White-tailed deer and mule deer

Camp Wainwright Deer Special Licence

N23-N25, D4-D6, D7-D9

WMUs 728 and 730

White-tailed and Antlered mule deer

Camp Wainwright Deer Special Licence

N27-N29, N30-D2

WMUs 728 and 730

Antlerless mule deer and Antlerless white-tailed deer

Foothills Deer Licence

D4-D7, D11-D14

WMU 212

White-tailed deer

Strathcona White-tailed Deer Licence

Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays only from O25-D7

Those portions of WMU 248 within the County of Strathcona or within the

County of Leduc

White-tailed deer

White-tailed Deer Licence

O17-O31, N9-N30

WMU 936

Elk

Cypress Hills Elk Special Licence

Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays only from O10-D1

WMUs 116, 118, 119 and 624

Elk

Cypress Hills Elk Special Licence

Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays only from D5-J12

WMUs 116, 118 and 119

TABLE 4

ADDITIONAL SEASONS (continued)

Elk

Cypress Hills Elk Archery Licence

S6-O9

WMUs 116, 118 and 119

Antlerless elk and Three point elk

WMU 300 Elk Special Licence, or Non-resident or Non-resident Alien Antlered

Elk Special Licence

S6-O24, O25-D24, D25-F21

WMU 300

Antlerless elk

WMU 212 Antlerless Elk Archery Licence

S6-N30

WMU 212

Elk

Antlered Elk Special Licence and Antlerless Elk Special Licence

S6-S23, S24-O8,

O9-O23

WMUs 102 and 104

Antlered elk

Antlered Elk Special Licence

O17-O31,

N1-N23

WMU 936

Calf moose

Calf Moose Special Licence

N23-N25, N27-D2, D4-D9

WMUs 728 and 730

Antlered Moose and Antlerless moose

Antlered Moose Special Licence, or Antlerless Moose Special Licence

N23-N25, N27-D2,

D4-D9

WMUs 728 and 730

Antlered moose and Antlerless moose

Antlered Moose Special Licence, or Antlerless Moose Special Licence

O17-O31, N1-N23

WMU 936

Antlered moose

Antlered Moose Special Licence

S17-O31, N1-N30

WMU 651

Grizzly bear

Grizzly Bear Special Licence

Ap1-Ma31

Big Game Zone 3 except WMU 330.

Big Game Zone 4 except WMUs 412 and 428.

WMUs 316, 318, 349, 351, 353, 354, 355, 356, 357, 524, 525, 527 and 537.

Grizzly bear

Grizzly Bear Special Licence

Ap1-Ma15

Big Game Zone 6.

WMUs 300, 302, 306 and 308.

Alberta Regulation 177/2000

Electric Utilities Act

INDEPENDENT POWER AND SMALL POWER

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 314/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 71 of the Electric Utilities Act.

1 The Independent Power and Small Power Regulation (AR 285/95) is amended

by this Regulation.

Section 1 is amended

(

a) by adding the following after clause (a):

(a.1) "balancing pool" has the meaning given to it in the

Act;

(a.2) "balancing pool administrator" has the meaning

given to it in the Balancing Pool Regulation (AR 169/99);

(

b) by adding the following after clause (c):

(c.1) "public utility" has the meaning given to it in the

Small Power Research and Development Act;

(c.2) "small power interval meter" means a meter that

(

i) measures, at intervals of 15 minutes,

30 minutes and 60 minutes, the amount of electricity produced, and

(ii) satisfies the standards for revenue

collection set under the Electricity and Gas Inspection Act (Canada) and

the Weights and Measures Act (Canada);

(c.3) "small power producer" means a small power

producer, as defined in the Small Power Research and Development Act, that

is generating electricity;

Section 6 is amended by adding the following after subsection (2):

(3) This

section is repealed on January 1, 2001.

4 The following is added after

section 6:

Requirement to use small power interval meter

6.1(1) After December 31, 2000, each small power producer must use a

small power interval meter to measure the amount of electricity produced by

it.

(2) A small power producer that is not, when this

section comes into

force, measuring its production of electricity by the use of a small power

interval meter must install such a meter before January 1, 2001.

(3) This

section does not apply to a small power producer whose

small power production contract expires before January 1, 2001.

Payments to and from balancing pool

6.2(1) The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing

pool to a small power producer the reasonable costs of obtaining and

installing a small power interval meter if the small power producer

(

a) obtained the approval of the balancing pool

administrator of the type and specifications of the small power interval

meter before installing it, and

(

b) provides the balancing pool administrator with

(

i) invoices relating to those reasonable

costs, and

(ii) a notice in writing that the small

power interval meter has been installed and is being used.

(2) After December 31, 2000, the following amounts must be

calculated on an hourly basis and paid on a monthly basis:

(

a) the balancing pool administrator must pay from the

balancing pool to a public utility the amount by which

(

i) the amount the public utility pays to a

small power producer for electricity generated under the capacity allocated

pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act, at a price equal

to the price described in

section 3(1)(

b) of that Act,

exceeds

(ii) the amount the public utility receives

from the power pool for the electricity generated under the capacity

allocated pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act;

(

b) a public utility must pay to the balancing pool

administrator for deposit in the balancing pool the amount by which

(

i) the amount the public utility receives

from the power pool for the electricity generated under the capacity

allocated pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act,

exceeds

(ii) the amount the public utility pays to a

small power producer for electricity generated under the capacity allocated

pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act, at a price equal

to the price described in

section 3(1)(

b) of that Act.

(3) The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing

pool on a monthly basis the costs incurred by a public utility to

administer its small power production contracts where, in the opinion of

the balancing pool administrator, the costs are reasonable for the capacity

allocated under the Small Power Research and Development Act.

(4) The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing

pool the reasonable costs incurred by a small power producer as a result of

the coming into force of the Act, the regulations or amendments to the

regulations, including, but not limited to,

(

a) costs of metering changes,

(

b) costs associated with

section 13(2) of the Act, and

(

c) costs of any charges that may arise from system

access service or distribution access service

to the extent that all such costs are related to the capacity

allocated under the Small Power Research and Development Act.

(5) Subsection (4) does not prevent the balancing pool administrator

from paying from the balancing pool a small power producer's costs

(

a) that are reasonable in the circumstances in which

they were incurred and are appropriate for the capacity allocated under the

Small Power Research and Development Act,

(

b) that have been approved by the Minister, and

(

c) the payment of which is not required under

subsection (4).

(6) In the event there is a dispute with respect to any matter set

out in

section 6.1 or this section, the matter must be determined by the

Minister.

Alberta Regulation 178/2000

Electric Utilities Act

TIME EXTENSION AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 315/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 71 of the Electric Utilities Act.

1 The Time Extension Regulation (AR 162/98) is amended by this

Regulation.

2 The following is added after

section 2:

Extension of date in s72(4) of Act

2.1(1) The Minister is authorized to extend the date specified in

section 72(4) of the Electric Utilities Act.

(2) An order of the Minister under subsection (1) must not extend

the date beyond June 30, 2003.

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 179/2000

Small Power Research and Development Act

REVENUE ADJUSTMENT AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 316/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 7 of the Small Power Research and Development Act.

1 The Revenue Adjustment Regulation (AR 358/94) is amended by this

Regulation.

Section 1 is amended by adding the following after clause (c):

(c.1) "balancing pool" has the meaning given to it in the Electric

Utilities Act;

(c.2) "balancing pool administrator" has the meaning given to it in

the Balancing Pool Regulation (AR 169/99);

Section 2(1) is repealed and the following is substituted:

Eligible power producer

2(1) Subject to subsection (2), a small power producer is eligible

to receive a revenue adjustment in respect of a taxation year if

(

a) the Minister, before or during the taxation year,

made a final allocation of capacity in respect of the producer's eligible

power production facility,

(

b) income tax under the provincial tax Act or the

federal Act in respect of the taxation year was payable and paid in full by

the producer, and

(

c) the producer, in accordance with

section 13,

reported to the Minister all provincial and federal assessments,

reassessments or additional assessments of income tax payable in respect of

prior taxation years during which the producer is a party to a small power

production contract.

Section 4(3) is amended by striking out "public utility" and

substituting "balancing pool administrator".

Section 5(2) is amended by striking out "public utility" and

substituting "balancing pool administrator".

Section 6 is amended

(

a) by repealing subsection (1) and substituting the following:

Payment of revenue adjustment

6(1) The balancing pool administrator shall pay to a contracting

producer from the balancing pool a revenue adjustment for a taxation year

to which the contract applies, in accordance with the notice sent to the

balancing pool administrator by the Minister under

section 5, not more than

30 days after it receives the notice.

(

b) in subsection (2) by striking out "a public utility" and

substituting "the balancing pool administrator".

Section 7 is amended

(

a) in subsection (1)

(

i) by striking out "public utility" and substituting

"balancing pool administrator";

(ii) by striking out "and providing estimates under

section 9";

(

b) by repealing subsection (2) and substituting the following:

(2) When the balancing pool administrator makes a payment under

section 6 to the agent of a contracting producer, the balancing pool

administrator is deemed to have made that payment to the producer.

Section 9 is repealed.

Section 10 is amended

(

a) in subsection (1)

(

i) by repealing clause (d);

(ii) in clause (

e) by striking out "(d)" and

substituting "(c)";

(

b) in subsection (2) by repealing clause (d).

10 Sections 2, 4, 5, 6, 7(a)(

i) and (

b) come into force on January 1,

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 180/2000

Social Care Facilities Licensing Act

DAY CARE REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 318/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 11 of the Social Care Facilities Licensing Act.

Definitions 1

Part 1

Licensing

Eligibility for licence 2

Contents of initial application 3

Renewal of application 4

Licensed capacity per facility 5

Part 2

Facilities and Their Operation

Accommodation 6

Net floor area 7

Furnishings and equipment 8

Outdoor play space 9

Child care program 10

Child guidance 11

Transportation to and from activities 12

Availability of telephone numbers 13

Accident or illness 14

Communicable disease 15

Supervised care for sick child 16

Medication 17

Health care 18

Smoking 19

Meals and snacks 20

Menus 21

Manner of feeding 22

Keeping of records 23

Portable emergency information record 24

Part 3

Staffing

Qualification certificates 25

Cancellation of certificate 26

Program director 27

Alternate program director 28

Primary staff members - day care centres 29

Ratios and maximum numbers - day care centres 30

Ratios - nursery schools 31

Ratios and maximum numbers - drop-in centres 32

Minimum staff requirements 33

Exemptions 34

General supervision requirement 35

First aid staffing 36

Part 4

Transitional Provisions, Repeals, Expiry and Coming into Force

Transitional provisions 37

Repeal 38

Expiry 39

Coming into force 40

Definitions

1(1) In this Regulation,

(a) "Act" means the Social Care Facilities Licensing Act;

(b) "child" means a child who is under 7 years of age and who,

except in the case of an individual attending an early childhood services

program within the meaning of the School Act, is not a student within the

meaning of the School Act;

(

i) provides care, development and supervision for 7 or

more children for more than 3 but less than 24 consecutive hours in each

day that the facility is operating, and

(ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12

consecutive weeks per year;

(d) "drop-in centre" means a facility that

(

i) provides care and supervision for 7 or more

children

(

A) for more than 3 but less than 24

consecutive hours in each day that the facility is operating, and

(

B) for not more than 40 hours in any month

for any child,

and

(ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12

consecutive weeks per year;

(e) "licence" means a licence, including a conditional licence,

under the Act in respect of a day care facility;

(f) "licensed capacity" means, in relation to a day care facility,

the maximum number of children that the licence permits to be accommodated

or cared for in the facility;

(g) "nursery school" means a facility that

(

i) provides care, development and supervision for 7 or

more children for periods of 3 consecutive hours or less in any day, and

(ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12

consecutive weeks per year;

(h) "parent" means, in relation to a child, the parent, guardian or

adult person who enrolled the child in the day care facility program;

(i) "primary staff member" means, subject to sections 30(5) and

33(2), a staff member of a day care facility whose duty is child care and

who is actively engaged in the supervision, safety, well-being and

development of children;

(j) "program director" means a staff member of a day care centre

whose duty is to provide on-site supervision of the daily operation of the

day care centre;

(k) "qualification certificate" means a qualification certificate

issued under

section 25.

(2) For the purposes of the Act and this Regulation, "day care facility"

means, in addition to a day care centre, a nursery school and a drop-in

centre.

PART 1 LICENSING

Eligibility for licence

2 A licence may be obtained or held only by

(

a) an individual who is an adult,

(

b) a partnership, or

(

c) a body corporate.

Contents of initial application

3(1) An application for an initial licence must be in writing and include,

in addition to the particulars and the required fee,

(

a) a service plan that demonstrates to the satisfaction of a

director the applicant's ability to provide a safe and effective child care

program, and a description of

(

i) the proposed child care program, including the

child care philosophy on which the program will be based,

(ii) the delivery of the child care program,

(iii) the nature and scope of parental involvement in the

child care program,

(iv) staff positions, responsibilities and qualification

requirements,

(

v) administrative policies and procedures, and

(vi) utilization of the indoor space and the outdoor

play space of the day care facility, including furnishings and equipment,

(

b) evidence of general liability insurance coverage for the staff

and children,

(

c) evidence of municipal zoning approval,

(

d) a satisfactory health inspection report from the regional

health authority in which the day care facility is to be located,

(

e) evidence of compliance with all applicable regulations under

the Safety Codes Act, and

(

f) in the case of a day care centre, the names and qualification

certificate numbers of the program director and each primary staff member.

(2) The fee for an initial licence is $35.

Renewal of application

4(1) An application for renewal of a licence must be in writing and

include, in addition to the particulars and the required fee, notification

of any change in any of the information previously provided under

section 3

or under this section.

(2) The fee for a licence renewal is $25.

Licensed capacity per facility

5(1) Subject to subsection (2), a director may not issue a licence

permitting a licensed capacity of more than 80.

(2) Where a licence in force on November 30, 1990 permitted the operation

of a day care facility with a licensed capacity of more than 80, a director

may renew that licence and make further renewals of licences in respect of

that day care facility notwithstanding that the licensed capacity exceeds

PART 2 FACILITIES AND THEIR OPERATION

Accommo-dation

6 A licence holder must ensure that

(

a) in the case of a day care facility

(

i) washrooms and washroom fixtures are conveniently

located and easily accessible to children, and

(ii) each room used for child care purposes has a layout

that is conducive to effective supervision,

and

(

b) in the case of a day care centre and drop-in centre, there is

adequate space provided for administrative and staff needs.

Net floor area

7(1) A licence holder must provide a net floor area of not less than

(a) 3 square metres per child in the case of a day care centre, or

(b) 2.5 square metres per child in the case of a nursery school and

drop-in centre.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the net floor area must be

calculated

(

a) by measuring floor space that is appropriate for use by

children when playing, resting, sleeping and eating, and

(

b) on the basis of licensed capacity.

(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), the net floor area of a day care

facility in respect of which a licence was in force on November 30, 1990

must be calculated by measuring usable floor space, including unencumbered

hallway space but not including the stairwells, kitchens, offices, staff

rooms, storage rooms or half of the washroom space.

Furnishings and equipment

8(1) A licence holder must ensure that indoor and outdoor furnishings and

equipment, including play materials, are safe and maintained in good

repair, are developmentally appropriate and are of sufficient quantity and

variety for the number and ages of the children cared for in the day care

facility.

(2) Each child under 13 months of age must be provided with a separate

crib that complies with the Cribs and Cradles Regulations (SOR/86-962) made

under the Hazardous Products Act (Canada).

Outdoor play space

9(1) A licence holder for a day care centre must provide outdoor play

space that is adjacent to or within easy and safe walking distance of the

day care centre and accommodates at least 50% of the licensed capacity at a

level of not less than 2 square metres for each child under 19 months of

age and not less than 4.5 square metres for each child who is 19 months of

age or over.

(2) Subject to subsection (3), the licence holder must ensure that

(

a) the play space referred to in subsection (1) is securely

enclosed on all sides, and

(

b) all entrances to and exits from the play space that do not lead

into the interior of the day care facility are kept closed at all times

while children are using the play space.

(3) In the case of a day care centre located on public property, a

director may exempt a licence holder from any requirement of subsection

(2) if the licence holder satisfies the director that

(

a) play space that meets the requirements of subsection (2) is not

reasonably available, and

(

b) the children will be adequately supervised and protected in the

play space provided under subsection (1).

Child care program

10 A licence holder must

(

a) provide a child care program that is in keeping with the

physical, social, intellectual, creative and emotional needs of the

children, and

(

b) submit any proposed change in that program to a director for

approval before implementing the change.

Child guidance

11(1) A licence holder must ensure that

(

a) child guidance methods are communicated to a parent of each

child, and

(

b) any child guidance action taken is reasonable in the

circumstances.

(2) No person may use corporal punishment against a child under any

circumstances.

Transportation to and from activities

12 A licence holder must ensure that proposed supervision arrangements

respecting the transportation of a child to and from any activity off the

day care facility are approved in writing by a parent.

Availability of telephone numbers

13 A licence holder must ensure that the current telephone numbers of the

following are kept readily available in the day care facility:

(

a) all staff members, including substitute staff members;

(

b) the nearest health unit;

(

c) the nearest hospital emergency centre and poison information

centre;

(

d) the fire department;

(

e) the police service;

(

f) the ambulance service.

Accident or illness

14 In the case of an accident to or a serious illness of a child, the

licence holder must forthwith ensure that

(

a) a parent is notified, and

(

b) the child receives medical attention.

Communi-cable disease

15 Where a staff member of a day care facility knows or has reason to

believe that a child may be suffering from a disease listed in

Schedule 1

of the Communicable Diseases Regulation (AR 238/85), the licence holder

must require a parent to remove the child from the day care facility

forthwith.

Supervised care for sick child

16 A licence holder must ensure that a sick child is

(

a) kept as far away as is practicable from the other children, and

(

b) directly supervised by a primary staff member,

until the child can be removed from the day care facility.

Medication

17(1) A licence holder may administer or allow the administration of

patent or prescribed medication to a child only where

(

a) the written consent of a parent has been obtained,

(

b) the medication is in the original labelled container, and

(

c) the medication is administered according to the labelled

directions.

(2) A licence holder must ensure that

(

a) all medication, except medication that may be needed in an

emergency to save a child's life, is stored in a locked container that is

inaccessible to children, and

(

b) medication that may be needed in an emergency to save a child's

life is stored in a place that is inaccessible to children.

Health care

18 A licence holder may provide or allow for the provision of health care

to a child only

(

a) if the written consent of a parent has been obtained,

(

b) if the health care to be provided is first aid, or

(

c) if, in the case of the administration of medicine, it is

administered in accordance with

section 17.

Smoking

19(1) No person shall smoke in a day care facility.

(2) No staff member shall smoke at any time or place where the staff

member is caring for children.

Meals and snacks

20 A licence holder must

(

a) provide or require parents to provide meals and snacks to the

children, and

(

b) ensure that meals and snacks provided to the children

(

i) are in accordance with Canada's Food Guide as

approved by the Canadian Council on Nutrition or in accordance with other

similar guidelines, and

(ii) are provided at appropriate times and in sufficient

quantities in accordance with the needs of each child.

Menus

21 A licence holder must make available to staff and parents, in a form

and manner approved by a director, information on the food to be provided

by the licence holder.

Manner of feeding

22 A licence holder must ensure that the manner in which the children are

fed is appropriate to their age and level of development.

Keeping of records

23(1) A licence holder must keep in the day care facility, in respect of

each child, up-to-date records that comply with subsection (2) and must

ensure that those records are available for inspection by a director at all

times and by the child's parent when practicable.

(2) The records must include

(

a) a current, signed and completed enrolment form,

(

b) the name, date of birth, health care registration number and

current home address of the child,

(

c) the name, current home address and telephone number of the

child's parent,

(

d) the address and telephone number of the place where the child's

parent and another person to whom the child may be released can be reached

in case of an emergency,

(

e) the name and telephone number of the child's physician,

(

f) except in the case of a drop-in centre, the date when the child

became enrolled in the day care facility program and when the child ceased

to be enrolled in the day care facility program,

(

g) particulars of the child's daily attendance, including arrival

and departure times, in a form that is satisfactory to a director,

(

h) particulars of the administration of any medication pursuant to

section 17, including the kind of medication, the time of administration,

the amount administered, the initials of the person administering and the

written consent of a parent,

(

i) particulars of any health care provided pursuant to

section 18,

including the written consent of a parent, and

(

j) written confirmation of the child's immunization and any other

health information provided by a parent.

(3) In the case of a day care centre, the licence holder must also keep in

the day care centre up-to-date records available for inspection by a

director at all times that include

(

a) particulars of the daily attendance of each primary staff

member, including arrival and departure times and hours spent providing

child care, in a form that is satisfactory to a director, and

(

b) a copy of

(

i) the qualification certificate of, or

(ii) an exemption issued under

section 34 in respect of,

the program director and each primary staff member.

(4) In the case of a drop-in centre, the licence holder must also keep in

the drop-in centre up-to-date records available for inspection by a

director at all times that include particulars of the daily attendance of

each primary staff member, including arrival and departure times and hours

spent providing child care, in a form that is satisfactory to a director.

(5) The licence holder must retain the records required by this

section

for

(

a) as long as the child or staff member, as the case may be, to

whom the records relate is enrolled in or on the staff of the day care

facility, or

(

b) at least 2 years following the end of the year in which the

records were created,

whichever is longer.

Portable emergency information record

24(1) A licence holder must maintain a portable record of emergency

information that complies with subsection (2) and must ensure that it is

taken on emergency evacuations and on field trips and other activities of

the day care facility.

(2) The emergency information must include

(

a) in respect of each child who is expected to be taken from the

day care facility, the information required by

section 23(2)(b), (c), (d),

(

e) and (j), and

(

b) the current telephone numbers of the nearest hospital emergency

centre and poison information centre.

PART 3 STAFFING

Qualification certificates

25(1) In this section, "college" means a public college as defined in the

Colleges Act.

(2) A person may apply to the Minister for a qualification certificate at

level 1, 2 or 3.

(3) The Minister must issue a level 1 qualification certificate to an

applicant who

(

a) has completed an orientation course for day care centre staff

that is approved by the Minister, or

(

b) has completed course work that the Minister considers to be

equivalent to an orientation course referred to in clause (a).

(4) The Minister must issue a level 2 qualification certificate to an

applicant who

(

a) has received a one-year certificate in early childhood

development or education from a college, or

(

b) has completed course work that the Minister considers to be

equivalent to the course work required for a certificate referred to in

clause (a).

(5) The Minister must issue a level 3 qualification certificate to an

applicant who

(

a) has received a 2-year diploma in early childhood development or

education from a college, or

(

b) has completed course work that the Minister considers to be

equivalent to the course work required for a diploma referred to in clause

(a).

Cancellation of certificate

26 Where the Minister is satisfied that a qualification certificate was

issued based on false or inaccurate information, the Minister may cancel

the certificate by providing written notice of the cancellation to the

person to whom it was issued.

Program director

27 A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that a full-time

program director who holds a level 3 qualification certificate is on the

staff of the day care centre at all times.

Alternate program director

28(1) Subject to subsection (2), a licence holder for a day care centre

must ensure that a primary staff member with a level 2 or level 3

qualification certificate is designated to supervise the operation of the

day care centre when the program director is not at the day care centre.

(2) Where a director is of the opinion that there will be no risk to the

safety and well-being of the children in a day care centre, the director

may, in writing, authorize the program director to designate a primary

staff member with a level 1 qualification certificate to supervise the

operation of the day care centre when the program director is not at the

day care centre.

Primary staff members - day care centres

29 A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that, of the total

number of primary staff members who are on duty at the day care centre and

who are included in the calculation of the minimum primary staff member to

children ratio under

section 30,

(

a) at all times between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., at least one in

every 4 holds a level 2 or level 3 qualification certificate and all the

others hold a level 1 qualification certificate, and

(

b) at all other times of the day, everyone holds at least a level

1 qualification certificate.

Ratios and maximum numbers - day care centres

30(1) Subject to this section, a licence holder for a day care centre

must ensure that the following minimum primary staff member to children

ratios, and the maximum number of children who may be included in a group,

in the day care centre are in effect at all times:

Age of Children Primary Staff Maximum

Member/Children Number

Ratio of Children

in a Group

Under 13 months 1:3 6

13 months or over,

but under 19 months 1:4 8

19 months or over,

but under 3 years 1:6 12

3 years or over, but

under 4« years 1:8 16

4« years or over 1:10 20

(2) A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that the following

minimum primary staff member to children ratios in the day care centre are

in effect at all times while children are sleeping:

Age of Children Primary Staff Member/

Children Ratio

Under 13 months 1:6

13 months or over,

but under 19 months 1:8

19 months or over,

but under 3 years 1:12

3 years or over,

but under 4« years 1:16

4« years or over 1:20

(3) Where a group of children in a day care centre includes children from

2 or more of the age groups specified in subsection (1) or (2), as the case

may be,

(

a) the number of primary staff members required for the purposes

of the primary staff member to children ratio in that subsection is to be

determined by taking the sum of the proportions of the primary staff member

requirement prescribed by the applicable ratio for each child in the group,

and

(

b) the licence holder must ensure that the composition of the

group is such that the sum of the primary staff requirement calculated in

accordance with clause (

a) does not exceed 2.0.

(4) The limitation imposed by subsection (1) on the number of children who

may be included in a group does not apply to a group referred to in

subsection (3) if the composition of the group complies with subsection

(3).

(5) In this section, "primary staff member" means a primary staff member

who holds a qualification certificate or in respect of whom an exemption

from

section 29 has been issued under

section 34.

Ratios - nursery schools

31 A licence holder for a nursery school must ensure that the following

minimum primary staff member to children ratios in the nursery school are

in effect at all times:

Age of Children Primary Staff

Member/Children Ratio

Under 19 months 1:6

19 months or over,

but under 3 years 1:10

3 years or over,

but under 5 years 1:12

5 years or over 1:15

Ratios and maximum numbers -drop-in centres

32(1) Subject to this section, a licence holder for a drop-in centre must

ensure that the following minimum primary staff member to children ratios,

and the maximum number of children who may be included in a group, in the

drop-in centre are in effect at all times:

Age of Children Primary Staff Maximum Number of

Member/Children Children in a Group

Ratio

Under 19 months 1:5 10

19 months or over,

but under 3 years 1:8 16

3 years or over,

but under 5 years 1:12 24

5 years or over 1:15 30

(2) Where a group of children in a drop-in centre includes children from 2

or more of the age groups specified in subsection (1),

(

a) the number of primary staff members required for the purposes

of the primary staff member to children ratio in that subsection is to be

determined by taking the sum of the proportions of the primary staff member

requirement prescribed by the applicable ratio for each child in the group,

and

(

b) the licence holder must ensure that the composition of the

group is such that the sum of the primary staff requirement calculated in

accordance with clause (

a) does not exceed 2.0.

(3) The limitation imposed by subsection (1) on the number of children who

may be included in a group does not apply to a group referred to in

subsection (2) if the composition of the group complies with subsection

(2).

Minimum staff requirements

33(1) Without limiting sections 30, 31 and 32, a licence holder must

ensure that

(

a) when 7 or more children are present at a day care facility, at

least 2 adult staff members are on duty in the day care facility, at least

one of whom is a primary staff member, and

(

b) no staff member under 18 years of age is solely responsible for

the supervision of the children.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), in the case of a day care

centre, "primary staff member" means a primary staff member who holds a

qualification certificate or in respect of whom an exemption from

section

29 has been issued under

section 34.

Exemptions

34 The Minister may, in writing, exempt a licence holder from any

qualification requirement of

section 27 or 29 in respect of a specific

staff position if the Minister is satisfied that

(

a) the licence holder has made every reasonable effort to fill the

position with a qualified person, or

(

b) the person selected to fill the position is engaged in the

course work necessary to obtain the qualification certificate otherwise

required for the position.

General supervision requirement

35 Notwithstanding sections 30 to 33, a licence holder must ensure that

the children are, at all times while they are present at, or involved in

activities arranged by, the day care facility, under such supervision as is

adequate to ensure the development, safety and well-being of the children.

First aid staffing

36 A licence holder must ensure that at least one of every 4 staff

members who provide care to children at any time in a day care facility

holds a valid first aid certificate acceptable to a director.

PART 4 TRANSITIONAL PROVISIONS, REPEALS, EXPIRY

AND COMING INTO FORCE

Transitional provisions

37 A person who holds a licence under the Day Care Regulation (AR 333/90)

immediately before the coming into force of this Regulation is deemed to

hold the same licence as if issued under this Regulation.

Repeal

38 The Day Care Regulation (AR 333/90) is repealed.

Expiry

39 For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for

ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in

its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires

on October 31, 2005.

Coming into force

40 This Regulation comes into force on October 31, 2000.

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 181/2000

Environmental Protection and Enhancement Act

OZONE-DEPLETING SUBSTANCES AND

HALOCARBONS REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 319/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to sections 82 and 225 of the Environmental Protection and

Enhancement Act.

Definitions 1

General prohibition 2

Refillable containers 3

Manufacture or sale 4

Refrigeration and air conditioning equipment 5

Halon servicing 6

Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act 7

Returns and reports 8

Label, mark is evidence 9

Offences 10

Due diligence defence 11

Repeal 12

Coming into force 13

Schedules

Definitions

1 In this Regulation,

(a) "charge" means to add an ozone-depleting substance or

halocarbon to a refrigeration or air conditioning system;

(b) "Director" means the person designated by Ministerial order as

Director for the purposes of this Regulation;

Schedule 3 or 4, and

includes a substance that contains such a substance;

(d) "ozone-depleting substance" means a substance listed in

Schedule 1 or 2, and includes a substance that contains such a substance;

(e) "servicing procedure" means a procedure associated with the

installation, maintenance, inspection, testing, leak detection, repair,

labelling, alteration, conversion or temporary or permanent decommissioning

of a refrigeration or air conditioning system or white goods or components

of a refrigeration or air conditioning system or white goods;

(f) "white goods" means cooling and refrigeration appliances

including, without limitation, refrigerators and freezers.

General prohibition

2(1) Unless subsections (3) to (6) are not contravened or unless permitted

by any enactment of Alberta or Canada or by approval, no person shall

release or permit the release of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon

into the environment.

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the release of an ozone-depleting

substance or halocarbon into the environment from any thing while it is

used

(

a) in the course of fighting fires;

(

b) in human or animal health care applications, such as the

following:

(

i) bronchial dilators;

(ii) inhalable steroids;

(iii) topical anaesthetics;

(iv) veterinary powder wound sprays;

(

v) sterilization of medical equipment;

(

c) in laboratory analytical procedures.

(3) On and after September 1, 2000, no person shall charge or permit the

charge of an air conditioning system that is designed for passengers in

motor vehicles, with a chlorofluorocarbon or any mixture containing a

chlorofluorocarbon listed in items (

a) to (

e) of

Schedule 1.

(4) No person shall release or permit the release of more than one

kilogram of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air

from an air purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low

pressure centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air

conditioning system that was installed on or after September 1, 1993.

(5) Notwithstanding subsection (4), on and after January 1, 2003, no

person shall release or permit the release of more than 0.1 kilogram of an

ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air from an air

purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low pressure

centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air

conditioning system that was installed before January 1, 2001.

(6) No person shall release or permit the release of more than 0.1

kilogram of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air

from an air purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low

pressure centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air

conditioning system that was installed on or after January 1, 2001.

Refillable container

3 On and after January 1, 2001, no person shall sell or purchase an

ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon used as a refrigerant in

refrigeration or air conditioning, unless it is in a container that is

designed to be refilled and to contain that substance.

Manufacture or sale

4(1) Subject to subsections (2) to (4), no person shall manufacture, offer

for sale or sell

(

a) any thing containing an ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1 that acts as a propellant,

(

b) packaging, wrapping or containers that contain an

ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1 or that are manufactured by

a process that uses an ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1,

(

c) a portable hand-held fire extinguisher that contains an

ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1 or that is manufactured by a

process that uses an ozone depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1,

(

d) rigid foam insulation or flexible furniture foam made with any

ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1, or

(

e) any thing that contains an ozone-depleting substance listed in

Schedule 1 that is

(

i) a release agent for molds used in the manufacture

of plastic materials,

(ii) a cleaning solvent for commercial use on electronic

or electrical equipment,

(iii) a protective spray for application to photographs,

(iv) a lubricant for use in mining operations.

(2) Subsection (1)(

c) does not apply to the sale or offering for sale of a

fire extinguisher that was manufactured before September 1, 1993.

(3) Subsection (1)(

d) does not apply to the following:

(

a) with respect to rigid foam insulation, other than rigid foam

insulation used in white goods,

(

i) its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before

July 1, 1994, or

(ii) its sale or offering for sale after July 1, 1994 if

it was manufactured before July 1, 1994;

(

b) with respect to rigid foam insulation used in white goods,

(

i) its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before

January 1, 1996, or

(ii) its sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1996

if it was manufactured before January 1, 1996;

(

c) with respect to flexible furniture foam,

(

i) its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before

January 1, 1994, or

(ii) its sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1994

if it was manufactured before January 1, 1994.

(4) Subsection (1)(

e) does not apply to

(

a) the manufacture, sale or offering for sale of any thing

referred to in clause (

e) before January 1, 1994, or

(

b) the sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1994 of any

thing referred to in clause (

e) that was manufactured before January 1,

Refrigeration and air conditioning equipment

5 A person who services a refrigeration system or air conditioning system

that contains or may contain an ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon

must conduct the servicing procedures in accordance with the Environment

Canada Environmental Code of Practice for Elimination of Fluorocarbon

Emissions from Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Systems EPS 1/RA/2 March

1996, as amended from time to time.

Halon servicing

6(1) A person who services a fire suppression system or equipment that

contains or may contain a halon listed in

Schedule 1 must conduct the

servicing procedures in accordance with the publication

ULC/ORD-C1058.18-1993, entitled The Servicing of Halon Extinguishing

Systems, as amended from time to time.

(2) No person shall install a fire suppression system or equipment

containing halon listed in

Schedule 1 on or after December 1, 2000.

(3) No person shall use an ozone-depleting substance for the purpose of

testing for leaks in a fire suppression system.

(4) No person shall add a halon listed in

Schedule 1 to a fire suppression

system unless the system has been tested for leaks and all the leaks have

been repaired.

(5) A person responsible for a fire suppression system that contains a

halon listed in

Schedule 1 in a combined amount of 40 kilograms or greater

must prepare a halon management plan applicable to the facility where the

system is located that includes

(

a) written procedures for servicing of the fire suppression

system, and

(

b) a plan and time

schedule for phase-out and replacement of

halon.

(6) The halon management plan referred to in subsection (5) must be

prepared by January 1, 2002.

(7) The halon management plan referred to in subsection (5) must be

available on and after January 1, 2002 at the facility for inspection by an

inspector of Alberta Environment on request.

Apprentice- ship and Industry Training Act

7 No person shall service equipment that contains or may contain an

ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon unless that person is qualified

to do such servicing under the Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act and

the regulations under that Act.

Returns and reports

8(1) The Director may by notice in writing directed to the person

responsible for an ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon

(

a) require any returns or reports respecting a release of the

ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon into the environment resulting from

the construction, operation or reclamation of a plant, structure or thing,

(

b) specify the manner and frequency of sampling, recording and

reporting of the performance of a plant, structure or thing from which the

ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon is or could be released into the

environment, and

(

c) specify an analytical method for determining the presence of

the ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon at a plant, structure or thing

that has affected, is affecting or may affect air emissions from the plant,

structure or thing.

(2) A person who receives a notice in writing under subsection (1) must

comply with it in accordance with its terms.

Label, mark is evidence

9 In a prosecution or proceeding under this Regulation, evidence that a

container, vessel or equipment bore a mark or label indicating that a

container, vessel or equipment contained an ozone-depleting substance or

halocarbon is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, proof that the

container, vessel or equipment contained the substance so identified.

Offences

10 Any person who contravenes

section 2, 3, 4(1), 5, 6, 7 or 8(2) is

guilty of an offence and liable,

(

a) in the case of an individual, to a fine of not more than $50

000, or

(

b) in the case of a corporation, to a fine of not more than $500

Due diligence defence

11 No person may be convicted of an offence under this Regulation if that

person establishes on a balance of probabilities that the person took all

reasonable steps to prevent its commission.

Repeal

12 The Ozone-depleting Substances Regulation (AR 125/93) is repealed.

Coming into force

13 This Regulation comes into force on September 1, 2000.

SCHEDULE 1

CHLOROFLUOROCARBONS (CFCs)

HALONS AND CHLOROCARBONS

(

a) CFC-11, also known as fluorotrichloromethane;

(

b) CFC-12, also known as dichlorodifluoromethane;

(

c) CFC-113, also known as 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-

trifluoroethane;

(

d) CFC-114, also known as 1,2-dichloro- 1,1,2,2-

tetrafluoroethane;

(

e) CFC-115, also known as 1-chloro- 1,1,2,2,2- pentafluoroethane;

(

f) Halon-1211, also known as bromochlorodifluoromethane;

(

g) Halon-1301, also known as bromotrifluoromethane;

(

h) Halon-2402, also known as dibromotetrafluoroethane;

(

i) All other bromofluorocarbons and bromochlorofluorocarbons;

(

j) Carbon tetrachloride;

(

k) Methyl chloroform, also known as 1,1,1-trichloroethane.

SCHEDULE 2

HYDROCHLOROFLUOROCARBONS (HCFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

(

a) HCFC-21 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-21), also known as

dichlorofluoromethane;

(

b) HCFC-22 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-22), also known as

chlorodifluoromethane;

(

c) HCFC-31 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-31), also known as

chlorofluoromethane;

(

d) HCFC-121 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-121), also known as

tetrachlorofluoroethane;

(

e) HCFC-122 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-122), also known as

trichlorodifluoroethane;

(

f) HCFC-123 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-123), also known as

dichlorotrifluoroethane;

(

g) HCFC-124 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-124), also known as

chlorotetrafluoroethane;

(

h) HCFC-131 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-131), also known as

trichlorofluoroethane;

(

i) HCFC-132 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-132), also known as

dichlorodifluoroethane;

(

j) HCFC-133 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-133), also known as

chlorotrifluoroethane;

(

k) HCFC-141 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-141), also known as

dichlorofluoroethane;

(

l) HCFC-142 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-142), also known as

chlorodifluoroethane;

(

m) HCFC-221 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-221), also known as

hexachlorofluoropropane;

(

n) HCFC-222 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-222), also known as

pentachlorodifluoropropane;

(

o) HCFC-223 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-223), also known as

tetrachlorotrifluoropropane;

(

p) HCFC-224 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-224), also known as

trichlorotetrafluoropropane;

(

q) HCFC-225 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-225), also known as

dichloropentafluoropropane;

(

r) HCFC-226 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-226), also known as

chlorohexafluoropropane;

(

s) HCFC-231 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-231), also known as

pentachlorofluoropropane;

(

t) HCFC-232 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-232), also known as

tetrachlorodifluoropropane;

(

u) HCFC-233 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-233), also known as

trichlorotrifluoropropane;

(

v) HCFC-234 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-234), also known as

dichlorotetrafluoropropane;

(

w) HCFC-235 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-235), also known as

chloropentafluoropropane;

(

x) HCFC-241 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-241), also known as

tetrachlorofluoropropane;

(

y) HCFC-242 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-242), also known as

trichlorodifluoropropane;

(

z) HCFC-243 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-243), also known as

dichlorotrifluoropropane;

(aa) HCFC-244 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-244), also known as

chlorotetrafluoropropane;

(bb) HCFC-251 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-251), also known as

trichlorofluoropropane;

(cc) HCFC-252 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-252), also known as

dichlorodifluoropropane;

(dd) HCFC-253 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-253), also known as

chlorotrifluoropropane;

(ee) HCFC-261 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-261), also known as

dichlorofluoropropane;

(ff) HCFC-262 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-262), also known as

chlorodifluoropropane;

(gg) HCFC-271 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-271), also known as

chlorofluoropropane.

All isomers of the above.

All mixtures and azeotropes of the above.

SCHEDULE 3

HYDROFLUOROCARBONS (HFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

(

a) HFC 23 - trifluoromethane;

(

b) HFC 32 - difluoromethane;

(

c) HFC 125 - pentafluoroethane;

(

d) HFC 134 - tetrafluoroethane;

(

e) HFC 143 - trifluoroethane;

(

f) HFC 152 - difluoroethane;

(

g) HFC 161 - monofluoroethane;

(

h) HFC 281 - fluoropropane;

(

i) HFC 272 - difluoropropane;

(

j) HFC 263 - trifluoropropane;

(

k) HFC 254 - tetrafluoropropane;

(

l) HFC 245 - pentafluoropropane;

(

m) HFC 236 - hexafluoropropane;

(

n) HFC 227 - heptafluoropropane;

(

o) HFC 218 - octafluoropropane.

Mixtures

All isomers of the above.

All mixtures and azeotropes of the above.

Mixtures or azeotropes of the above with HCFCs are part of

Schedule 2.

Mixtures or azeotropes of the above containing CFCs are part of

Schedule 1.

SCHEDULE 4

PERFLUOROCARBONS (PFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

(

a) FC-14, also known as tetrafluoromethane;

(

b) FC-116, also known as hexafluoroethane;

(

c) FC-218, also known as octafluoropropane;

(

d) FC-3-1-10, also known as decafluorobutane;

(

e) FC-4-1-12, also known as dodecafluoropentane;

(

f) FC-5-1-14, also known as tetradecafluorohexane.

Mixtures

A mixture containing one of the above.

Any azeotropes of the above.

Mixtures or azeotropes of the above with HCFCs are part of

Schedule 2.

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 182/2000

Government Organization Act

ENVIRONMENT GRANT REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 321/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 13 of the Government Organization Act.

Authority of Minister 1

Application 2

Delegation 3

Agreements 4

Refund of surplus or repayment 5

Accountability 6

Repeal 7

Expiry 8

Authority of Minister

1(1) The Minister of Environment is authorized to make grants in

accordance with this Regulation.

(2) The Minister may make grants to a person or organization for purposes

related to any program, service or other matter under the administration of

the Minister.

Application

2 An application for a grant must be made in the manner and form that the

Minister determines.

Delegation

3 The Minister may delegate to any employee of the Government any power

conferred on the Minister under

section 13 of the Government Organization

Act or under this Regulation.

Agreements

4 The Minister may enter into agreements, and may require an applicant

for a grant to enter into an agreement, with respect to any matter relating

to a grant.

Refund of surplus or repayment

5(1) The recipient of a grant may use the money

(

a) only for the purpose for which the grant is made, or

(

b) if the original purpose for which the grant is made is varied

with the consent of the Minister, only for the purpose as varied.

(2) If the recipient of a grant does not use all of the money for the

purpose for which the grant is made, the Minister may require the recipient

to refund the surplus money to the Provincial Treasurer.

(3) The Minister may require the recipient of a grant to repay all or part

of the money to the Provincial Treasurer if the recipient does not comply

with any conditions of the grant or does not use the money as required

under this Regulation.

Accountability

6 The Minister may at any time require that the recipient of a grant

(

a) provide information to the Minister so that the Minister may

determine whether the recipient is complying with the conditions of the

grant and is using the money as required under this Regulation,

(

b) provide an audited financial statement of the expenditure of

the money, and

(

c) permit a representative of the Minister or the Auditor General,

or both, to examine any books or records to determine whether the money has

been properly expended.

Repeal

7 The following regulations are repealed:

(

a) Environment Grants Regulations (AR 51/76);

(

b) Forestry, Lands and Wildlife Grant Regulation (AR 347/86).

Expiry

8 For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for

ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in

its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires

on November 30, 2005.

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 183/2000

Municipal Government Act

HIGHWAY 14 REGIONAL WATER SERVICES COMMISSION

AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 332/2000) on August 23,

2000 pursuant to

section 602.02 of the Municipal Government Act.

1 The Highway 14 Regional Water Services Commission Regulation (AR

154/90) is amended by this Regulation.

Section 2(

d) is repealed.

Alberta Regulation 184/2000

Safety Codes Act

EXEMPTION AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 24, 2000

Made by the Minister of Municipal Affairs (M.O. SS:002/00) on August 22,

2000 pursuant to

section 2(2) of the Safety Codes Act.

1 The Exemption Regulation (AR 199/96) is amended by this Regulation.

Section 4 is amended by striking out "August 31, 2000" and substituting

"August 31, 2002".

------------------------------

Alberta Regulation 185/2000

Child Welfare Act

GENERAL AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 25, 2000

Made by the Minister of Children's Services (M.O. 51/00) on August 24, 2000

pursuant to

section 96(2) of the Child Welfare Act.

1 The General Regulation (AR 192/85) is amended by this Regulation.

Schedule 2 is amended by adding the following after clause (h):

(

j) Woods Homes (Calgary);

(

k) Central Peace Group Home (Rycroft);

(

l) Sifton Children's Centre Protective Safe House (Lethbridge);

(

m) Saamis Children's Centre Protective Safe House (Medicine Hat).

Alberta Regulation 186/2000

Cancer Programs Act

CANCER PROGRAMS AMENDMENT REGULATION

Filed: August 25, 2000

Made by the Minister of Health and Wellness (M.O. 79/2000) on August 24,

2000 pursuant to sections 17 and 20.9 of the Cancer Programs Act.

1 The Cancer Programs Regulation (AR 242/98) is amended by this

Regulation.

2 The

Schedule is repealed and the following is substituted:

SCHEDULE

Drug

Group

Dosage Form

Criteria

13 Cis-RETINOIC ACID

capsules

Pediatrics

restricted to the treatment of advanced stage neuroblastoma following

POG/CCG Protocols

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the pediatric tumour program

ALL-TRANS RETINOIC ACID

capsules

restricted to treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the hematology/lymphoma tumour program or the pediatric tumour program

ALTRETAMINE

capsules

restricted to treatment of 2nd line ovarian cancer

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the gynecology tumour program

AMSACRINE

injectable

ANASTROZOLE

tablets

2nd line hormonal therapy for postmenopausal metastatic breast cancer

may be given first line in those patients who are at risk of a

thromboembolic event

ANAGRELIDE

capsules

for thrombocytosis due to myeloproliferative disorder

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the hematology/lymphoma tumour program

ASPARAGINASE

injectable

BCG

injectable

bladder carcinoma

BICALUTAMIDE

tablets

restricted to patients who are intolerant to Nilutamide and Flutamide

BLEOMYCIN

injectable

pump

BUSERELIN

injectable

prostate cancer

Restricted to:

Stage II (T2a-T2c): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).

Neoadjuvant use pre radical prostatectomy (4 months pre).

Stage III (T3a-T4b): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).

Adjuvant use (3 years post RT).

Stage IV (N1-N3) (M1-M1c): As monotherpy in medical castration.

In total androgen blockade (medical castration and nonsteriodal

antiandrogen).

Guidelines for LHRH use in the above stated stages include: LHRH agonists

are indicated for use in patients at risk of thromboembolic disease,

strokes (CVA), myocardial infarction and also for consideration in patients

with dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus or where a patient is

considered intolerant to cyproterone acetate or megestrol acetate.

BUSULFAN

tablets

CAPECITABINE

oral

advanced or metastatic breast cancer after failure of standard therapy

including an anthracycline and taxane

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the breast tumour program

CARBOPLATIN

injectable

CARMUSTINE

injectable

CHLORAMBUCIL

tablets

CISPLATIN

injectable

CLADRIBINE

injectable

restricted to treatment of hairy cell leukemia

Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the hematology/lymphoma tumour program

injectable

POG Protocol 9720

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the pediatric tumour program

CLODRONATE

oral

treatment of osteolytic bone lesions in metastatic breast cancer

CORTISONE ACETATE

tablets

use with Mitotane only

CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE

injectable, tablets

CYPROTERONE

tablets

CYTARABINE

injectable

DACARBAZINE

injectable

DACTINOMYCIN

injectable

DAUNORUBICIN

injectable

DEXAMETHASONE

injectable, tablets

antiemetic use NOT covered

DIETHYLSTILBESTROL

tablets

DIETHYLSTILBESTROL DIPHOSPHATE

injectable, tablets

DOCETAXEL

injectable

restricted to the treatment of metastatic breast cancer after failure of

any previous chemotherapy regimen.

only one taxane is to be administered to any one patient

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the breast tumour program

DOXORUBICIN

injectable

DOXORUBICIN LIPOSOMAL

injectable

Kaposi's sarcoma

EPIRUBICIN

injectable

Premenopausal node positive breast cancer patients who either:

a) are not eligible for a study and want high intensity treatment (FEC),

b) have mild underlying heart disease but would benefit from an

anthracycline and who do not want high intensity treatment (EC)

ERWINIA ASPARAGINASE

injectable

restricted to use in patients hypersensitive to E. Coli asparaginase for

remission induction in acute lymphoblastic leukemia

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the pediatric tumour program

or the hematology/ lymphoma program

ESTRAMUSTINE

capsules

ETOPOSIDE

injectable, capsules

FLUDARABINE

injectable

previously treated chronic lymphocytic leukemia

low grade lymphoma

Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the hematology/lymphoma tumour program

FLUOROURACIL

injectable, cream

pump

FLUOXYMESTERONE

tablets

FLUTAMIDE

tablets

prostate cancer

GEMCITABINE

injectable

Lung Cancer

patients who have failed treatment with Vinorelbine or Paclitaxel

containing regimens or who are unable to tolerate treatment with these

agents.

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the lung tumour program

injectable

Bladder Cancer

progressive local or metastatic transitional cell carcinoma of the

urothelium who have failed on cisplatin or are intolerant to cisplatin

based chemotherapy due to age, performance status, renal function in

concomitant medical illness.

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the GU tumour program

injectable

Pancreas

locally advanced or metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the GI tumour program

GOSERELIN

injectable

prostate cancer

Restricted to:

Stage II (T2a-T2c): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).

Neoadjuvant use pre radical prostatectomy (4 months pre).

Stage III (T3a-T4b): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).

Adjuvant use (3 years post RT).

Stage IV (N1-N3) (M1-M1c): As monotherpy in medical castration.

In total androgen blockade (medical castration and nonsteriodal

antiandrogen).

Guidelines for LHRH use in the above stated stages include: LHRH agonists

are indicated for use in patients at risk of thromboembolic disease,

strokes (CVA), myocardial infarction and also for consideration in patients

with dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus or where a patient is

considered intolerant to cyproterone acetate or megestrol acetate.

injectable

breast cancer. 2nd line hormonal therapy for recurrent or metastatic

disease in ER positive pre-perimenopausal patients after tamoxifen failure.

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the breast tumour program

HYDROCORTISONE SODIUM SUCCINATE

injectable

intrathecal use only

HYDROXYUREA

capsules

IDARUBICIN

injectable

POG Protocol 9720

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the pediatric tumour program

IFOSFAMIDE

injectable

pump

INTERFERON

- alpha 2a or 2b

- alpha 2b in new patients "98-99"

injectable

cladribine-resistant hairy cell leukemia

Kaposi's sarcoma

chronic myelogenous leukemia

INTERFERON

alpha 2a ONLY

injectable

mycosis fungoides and sezary syndrome (cutaneous T-cell lymphomas)

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the hematology/lymphoma tumour program

metastatic renal cell carcinoma

INTERFERON

alpha 2b ONLY

injectable

basal cell carcinoma

adjuvant treatment of high risk melanoma

2nd line therapy of superficial bladder cancer

treatment of patients with malignant carcinoid and neuroendocrine

gastroenteropancreatic tumours not amenable to surgical extirpation

prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by

the GI and endocrine tumour programs

injectable

maintenance therapy in multiple myeloma patients who have achieved

complete remission after high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell

transplant.

follicular lymphoma and need for therapy as indicated by any of: mass >7

cm or 3 sites >3 cm, Bsx, splenomegaly @ umbilicus, compression syndromes

(GI, GU, orbit), effusions cytopenias, Age

Document details

Collection	Alberta — Gazette
Citation	0915 ii
Type	gazette
Volume / chapter	0915 ii
Language	en
Format	html
Source	PROVINCIAL
Identifier	ba4988da3fe2b83d22007fd95c98a0d01c471375

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